NDA 1 2018 | Apply | Eligibility Criteria | Important Dates | National Defence Academy Entrance Exam 1 2018 | Exam Pattern | Syllabus | Question Paper | Results | Answer Key
NDA 1 2018 | Apply | Eligibility Criteria | Important Dates | National Defence Academy Entrance Exam 1 2018 | Exam Pattern | Syllabus | Question Paper | Results | Answer Key
Download Notification NDA 1 2018 | Apply | Eligibility Criteria | Important Dates | National Defence Academy Entrance Exam 1 2018 | Exam Pattern | Syllabus | Question Paper | Results | Answer Key
How To Apply NDA 1 2018 | National Defence Academy Entrance Exam 1 2018
Candidates are required to apply Online by using the website upsconline.nic.in Detailed instructions for filling up online applications are available on the above-mentioned website.
NOTE-1 : The applicants are advised to submit only single application; however if due to any unavoidable situation, if he submits another/multiple applications, then he must ensure that application with the higher RID is complete in all respects like applicants’ details, examination centre, photograph, signature, fee etc. The applicants who are submitting multiple applications should note that only the applications with higher RID (Registration ID) shall be entertained by the Commission and fee paid against one RID shall not be adjusted against any other RID.
NOTE-2 : All candidates whether already in Government Service including candidates serving in the Armed Forces, Sailors (including boys and artificers apprentices) of the Indian Navy, Cadets of Rashtriya Indian Military College (previously known as Sainik School, Dehradun), Students of Rashtriya Military Schools (formerly known as Military Schools) and Sainik Schools run by Sainik Schools Society, Government owned industrial undertakings or other similar organizations or in private employment should apply online direct to the Commission.
N.B. (a) Persons already in Government Service, whether in permanent or temporary capacity or as work charged employees other than casual or daily rated employees or those serving under the Public Enterprises; (b) Candidates serving in the Armed Forces, Sailors (including boys and artificers apprentices) of the Indian Navy; and (c) Cadets of Rashtriya Indian Military College (previously known as Sainik School, Dehra Dun), Students of Military Schools formerly known as King George’s Schools and Sainik Schools run by Sainik Schools Society are required to inform their Head of Office/Department, Commanding Officer, Principals of College/School concerned, as the case may be, in writing that they have applied for this examination. Candidates should note that in case a communication is received by the Commission from their employer/authority concerned withholding permission to the candidates applying for/appearing at the examination, their applications will be liable to be rejected/candidatures will be liable to be cancelled.
NOTE-3 : WHILE FILLING IN THE APPLICATION FORM, THE CANDIDATE SHOULD CAREFULLY DECIDE ABOUT HIS CHOICE FOR THE CENTRE FOR THE EXAMINATION.
IF ANY CANDIDATE APPEARS AT A CENTRE OTHER THAN THE ONE INDICATED BY THE COMMISSION IN HIS E-ADMISSION CERTIFICATE, THE PAPERS OF SUCH A CANDIDATE WILL NOT BE VALUED AND HIS CANDIDATURE WILL BE LIABLE TO CANCELLATION.
NOTE-4 : APPLICATIONS WITHOUT THE PRESCRIBED FEE (UNLESS REMISSION OF FEE IS CLAIMED AS IN PARA 4 ABOVE) OR INCOMPLETE APPLICATIONS SHALL BE SUMMARILY REJECTED. NO REPRESENTATION OR CORRESPONDENCE REGARDING SUCH REJECTION SHALL BE ENTERTAINED UNDER ANY CIRCUMSTANCES. CANDIDATES ARE NOT REQUIRED TO SUBMIT ALONG WITH THEIR APPLICATIONS ANY CERTIFICATE IN SUPPORT OF THEIR CLAIMS REGARDING AGE, EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATIONS, SCHEDULED CASTES/SCHEDULED TRIBES/OTHER BACKWARD CLASSES AND FEE REMISSION ETC. THEY SHOULD THEREFORE, ENSURE THAT THEY FULFIL ALL THE ELIGIBILITY CONDITIONS FOR ADMISSION TO THE EXAMINATION. THEIR ADMISSION TO THE EXAMINATION WILL ALSO THEREFORE BE PURELY PROVISIONAL. IF ON VERIFICATION AT ANY LATER DATE IT IS FOUND THAT THEY DO NOT FULFIL ALL ELIGIBILITY CONDITIONS, THEIR CANDIDATURE WILL BE CANCELLED. THE RESULT OF THE WRITTEN PART OF THE EXAMINATION IS LIKELY TO BE DECLARED IN THE MONTH OF JULY, 2018.
All the candidates who have successfully qualified in the written examination are required to register themselves online on Directorate General of Recruiting website www.joinindianarmy.nic.in. E-mail ID as provided to UPSC while filling UPSC online application should invariably be used while registering on www.joinindianarmy.nic.in. These candidates would then be allotted Selection Centres through the aforesaid website. In case of any problems/queries, candidates should contact Directorate General of Recruiting on the telephone numbers given on their website or through feedback / query module after logging on to their profile.
NOTE 5: CANDIDATES WHO HAVE PASSED WRITTEN TEST ARE NOT REQUIRED TO SUBMIT THEIR ORIGINAL CERTIFICATE OF AGE AND EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION EITHER TO DIRECTORATE GENERAL OF RECRUITING, ARMY HQ, WEST BLOCK-III, RK PURAM, NEW DELHI-110066 OR TO NAVAL HEADQUARTERS, DMPR, OI&R SECTION, ‘C’ WING, SENA BHAWAN, NEW DELHI-110011.
ALL CANDIDATES CALLED FOR INTERVIEW MUST CARRY THEIR ORIGINAL MATRICULATION CERTIFICATE OR EQUIVALENT EXAMINATION CERTIFICATE TO THE SERVICES SELECTION BOARD (SSB). ORIGINALS WILL HAVE TO BE PRODUCED BY THE CANDIDATES WHO QUALIFY AT THE SSB INTERVIEW SOON AFTER THE INTERVIEW. THE ORIGINALS WILL BE RETURNED AFTER VERIFICATION. THOSE CANDIDATES WHO HAVE ALREADY PASSED 10+2 EXAMINATION MUST CARRY THEIR ORIGINAL 10+2 PASS CERTIFICATE OR MARKS SHEET FOR THE SSB INTERVIEW. IF ANY OF THEIR CLAIMS IS FOUND TO BE INCORRECT THEY MAY RENDER THEMSELVES LIABLE TO DISCIPLINARY ACTION BY THE COMMISSION IN TERMS OF THE FOLLOWING PROVISIONS:
A candidate who is or has been declared by the Commission to be guilty of :
(i) obtaining support for his candidature by any means, or
- impersonating, or
- procuring impersonation by any person, or
- submitting fabricated documents or documents which have been tampered with, or
- making statements which are incorrect or false or suppressing material information, or
- resorting to any other irregular or improper means in connection with his candidature for the examination, or
- using unfair means during the examination, or
- writing irrelevant matter, including obscene language or pornographic matter, in the script(s), or
- misbehaving in any other manner in the examination hall, or
- harassing or doing bodily harm to the Staff employed by the Commission for the conduct of their examination, or
- being in possession of or using mobile phone, pager bluetooth or any electronic equipment or device or any other equipment capable of being used as a communication device during the examination, or
- violating any of the instructions issued to candidates alongwith their Admission Certificates permitting them to take the examination, or
- attempting to commit or as the case may be abetting the Commission of all or any of the acts specified in the foregoing clauses, may in addition to rendering himself liable to criminal prosecution be liable
- to be disqualified by the Commission from the examination for which he is a candidate and/or
- to be debarred either permanently or for a specified period
- by the Commission from any examination or selection held by them;
- by the Central Government from any employment under them and;
- if he is already in service under Government to disciplinary action under the appropriate rules.
Provided that no penalty under this rule shall be imposed except after :
- giving the candidate an opportunity of making such representation, in writing as he may wish to make in that behalf; and
- taking the representation, if any, submitted by the candidate within the period allowed to him into consideration.
Eligibility Criteria NDA 1 2018 | National Defence Academy Entrance Exam 1 2018
.CONDITIONS OF ELIGIBILITY :
(a) Nationality : A candidate must either be :
- a citizen of India, or
- a subject of Bhutan, or
- a subject of Nepal, or
- a Tibetan refugee who came over to India before the 1st January, 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India, or
- a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka and East African Countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire and Ethiopia or Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India.
Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India.
Certificate of eligibility will not, however, be necessary in the case of candidates who are Gorkha subjects of Nepal.
(b) Age Limits, Sex and Marital Status :
Only unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 02nd July, 1999 and not later than 1st July, 2002 are eligible.
The date of birth accepted by the Commission is that entered in the Matriculation or Secondary School Leaving Certificate or in a certificate recognised by an Indian University as equivalent to Matriculation or in an extract from a Register of Matriculates maintained by a University which must be certified by the proper authority of the University or in the Higher Secondary or an equivalent examination certificates. These certificates are required to be submitted only after the declaration of the result of the written part of the examination. No other document relating to age like horoscopes, affidavits, birth extracts from Municipal Corporation, service records and the like will be accepted. The expression Matriculation/Higher Secondary Examination Certificate in this part of the instruction includes the alternative certificates mentioned above.
NOTE 1 : Candidates should note that only the date of birth as recorded in the Matriculation/Higher Secondary Examination Certificate available or an equivalent certificate on the date of submission of applications will be accepted by the Commission and no subsequent request for its change will be considered or granted.
NOTE 2 : Candidates should also note that once a date of birth has been claimed by them and entered in the records of the Commission for the purpose of admission to an Examination, no change will be allowed subsequently or at any subsequent examination on any ground whatsoever.
NOTE 3 : The candidates should exercise due care while entering their date of birth in the respective column of the Online Application Form for the Examination. If on verification at any subsequent stage any variation is found in their date of birth from the one entered in their Matriculation or equivalent Examination certificate, disciplinary action will be taken against them by the Commission under the Rules.
NOTE 4 : Candidates must undertake not to marry until they complete their full training. A candidate who marries subsequent to the date of his application though successful at this or any subsequent Examination will not be selected for training. A candidate who marries during training shall be discharged and will be liable to refund all expenditure incurred on him by the Government.
(c) Educational Qualifications:
- For Army Wing of National Defence Academy :—12th Class pass of the 10+2 pattern of School Education or equivalent examination conducted by a State Education Board or a University.
- For Air Force and Naval Wings of National Defence Academy and for the 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme at the Indian Naval Academy :—12th Class pass of the 10+2 pattern of School Education or equivalent with Physics and Mathematics conducted by a State Education Board or a University.
Candidates who are appearing in the 12th Class under the 10+2 pattern of School Education or equivalent examination can also apply for this examination.
Such candidates who qualify the SSB interview but could not produce Matriculation/10+2 or equivalent certificate in original at the time of SSB interview should forward duly self attested Photocopies to ‘Directorate General of Recruiting, Army HQ, West Block.III, R.K. Puram, New Delhi-110066’ and for Naval Academy candidates to ‘Naval Headquarters, DMPR, OI&R Section, Room No. 204, ‘C’ Wing, Sena Bhavan, New Delhi-110011’ by 24th December, 2018 failing which their candidature will be cancelled. All other candidates who have produced their Matriculation and 10+2 pass or equivalent certificates in original at the time of attending the SSB interview and have got the same verified by the SSB authorities are not required to submit the same to Army HQ or Naval HQ as the case may be. Certificates in original issued by the Principals of the Institutions are also acceptable in cases where Boards/Universities have not yet issued certificates. Certified true copies/photostate copies of such certificates will not be accepted.
In exceptional cases the Commission may treat a candidate, who does not possess any of the qualifications prescribed in this rule as educationally qualified provided that he possesses qualifications, the standard of which in the opinion of the Commission, justifies his admission to the examination.
NOTE 1 : Candidates appearing in the 11th class exam are not eligible for this examination.
NOTE 2 : Those candidates who have yet to qualify in the 12th class or equivalent examination and are allowed to appear in the UPSC Examination should note that this is only a special concession given to them. They are required to submit proof of passing the 12th class or equivalent examination by the prescribed date (i.e. 24th December, 2018) and no request for extending this date will be entertained on the grounds of late conduct of Board/University Examination, delay in declaration of results or any other ground whatsoever.
NOTE 3 : Candidates who are debarred by the Ministry of Defence from holding any type of Commission in the Defence Services shall not be eligible for admission to the examination and if admitted, their candidature will be cancelled.
NOTE 4 : Those candidates who have failed INSB/PABT earlier are not eligible for Air Force.
(d) Physical Standards:
Candidates must be physically fit according to physical standards for admission to National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination (I), 2018 as per guidelines given in Appendix-IV.
- A candidate who has resigned or withdrawn on disciplinary grounds from any of the training academies of Armed Forces is not eligible to apply.
Important Dates NDA 1 2018 | National Defence Academy Entrance Exam 1 2018
LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATIONS:
The Online Applications can be filled upto 05th February, 2018 till 6.00 PM.
NDA 2018 VACANCY TO BE FILLED | VACANT SEATS
The approximate number of vacancies to be filled on the results of this examination will be as under :—
|National Defence Academy||:||360 (208 for Army, 60 for Navy|
|and 92 for Air Force)|
|(10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme)|
Exam Pattern NDA 1 2018 | National Defence Academy Entrance Exam 1 2018
SCHEME OF EXAMINATION
- The subjects of the written examination, the time allowed and the maximum marks allotted to each subject will be as follows:—
|General Ability Test||02||2½ Hours||600|
|SSB Test/Interview :||900|
- THE PAPERS IN ALL THE SUBJECTS WILL CONSIST OF OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS ONLY. THE QUESTION PAPERS (TEST BOOKLETS) OF MATHEMATICS AND PART “B” OF GENERAL ABILITY TEST WILL BE SET BILINGUALLY IN HINDI AS WELL AS ENGLISH.
- In the question papers, wherever necessary, questions involving the metric system of Weights and Measures only will be set.
- Candidates must write the papers in their own hand. In no circumstances will they be allowed the help of a scribe to write answers for them.
- The Commission have discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all the subjects at the examination.
- The candidates are not permitted to use calculator or Mathematical or logarithmic table for answering objective type papers (Test Booklets). They should not therefore, bring the same inside the Examination Hall.
Syllabus NDA 1 2018 | National Defence Academy Entrance Exam 1 2018
MATHEMATICS (Code No. 01) (Maximum Marks-300)
Concept of set, operations on sets, Venn diagrams. De Morgan laws, Cartesian product, relation, equivalence relation. Representation of real numbers on a line. Complex numbers—basic properties, modulus, argument, cube roots of unity. Binary system of numbers. Conversion of a number in decimal system to binary system and vice-versa. Arithmetic, Geometric and Harmonic progressions. Quadratic equations with real coefficients. Solution of linear inequations of two variables by graphs. Permutation and Combination. Binomial theorem and its applications. Logarithms and their applications.
- MATRICES AND DETERMINANTS :
Types of matrices, operations on matrices. Determinant of a matrix, basic properties of determinants. Adjoint and inverse of a square matrix, Applications-Solution of a system of linear equations in two or three unknowns by Cramer’s rule and by Matrix Method.
- TRIGONOMETRY :
Angles and their measures in degrees and in radians. Trigonometrical ratios. Trigonometric identities Sum and difference formulae. Multiple and Sub-multiple angles. Inverse trigonometric functions. Applications-Height and distance, properties of triangles.
- ANALYTICAL GEOMETRY OF TWO AND THREE DIMENSIONS:
Rectangular Cartesian Coordinate system. Distance formula. Equation of a line in various forms. Angle between two lines. Distance of a point from a line. Equation of a circle in standard and in general form. Standard forms of parabola, ellipse and hyperbola. Eccentricity and axis of a conic. Point in a three dimensional space, distance between two points. Direction Cosines and direction ratios. Equation two points. Direction Cosines and direction ratios. Equation of a plane and a line in various forms. Angle between two lines and angle between two planes. Equation of a sphere.
- DIFFERENTIAL CALCULUS :
Concept of a real valued function–domain, range and graph of a function. Composite functions, one to one, onto and inverse functions. Notion of limit, Standard limits—examples. Continuity of functions—examples, algebraic operations on continuous functions. Derivative of function at a point, geometrical and physical interpretation of a derivative—applications. Derivatives of sum, product and quotient of functions, derivative of a function with respect to another function, derivative of a composite function. Second order derivatives. Increasing and decreasing functions. Application of derivatives in problems of maxima and minima.
- INTEGRAL CALCULUS AND DIFFERENTIAL EQUATIONS :
Integration as inverse of differentiation, integration by substitution and by parts, standard integrals involving algebraic expressions, trigonometric, exponential and hyperbolic functions. Evaluation of definite integrals—determination of areas of plane regions bounded by curves— applications.
Definition of order and degree of a differential equation, formation of a differential equation by examples. General and particular solution of a differential equations, solution of first order and first degree differential equations of various types—examples. Application in problems of growth and decay.
- VECTOR ALGEBRA :
Vectors in two and three dimensions, magnitude and direction of a vector. Unit and null vectors, addition of vectors, scalar multiplication of a vector, scalar product or dot product of two vectors. Vector product or cross product of two vectors. Applications—work done by a force and moment of a force and in geometrical problems.
- STATISTICS AND PROBABILITY :
Statistics : Classification of data, Frequency distribution, cumulative frequency distribution—examples. Graphical representation—Histogram, Pie Chart, frequency polygon—examples. Measures of Central tendency—Mean, median and mode. Variance and standard deviation—determination and comparison. Correlation and regression.
Probability : Random experiment, outcomes and associated sample space, events, mutually exclusive and exhaustive events, impossible and certain events. Union and Intersection of events. Complementary, elementary and composite events. Definition of probability—classical and statistical— examples. Elementary theorems on probability—simple problems. Conditional probability, Bayes’ theorem—simple problems. Random variable as function on a sample space. Binomial distribution, examples of random experiments giving rise to Binominal distribution.
PAPER-II GENERAL ABILITY TEST (Code No. 02)
Part ‘A’—ENGLISH (Maximum Marks—200)
The question paper in English will be designed to test the candidate’s understanding of English and workman like use of words. The syllabus covers various aspects like : Grammar and usage, vocabulary, comprehension and cohesion in extended text to test the candidate’s proficiency in English.
Part ‘B’—GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (Maximum Marks—400)
The question paper on General Knowledge will broadly cover the subjects : Physics, Chemistry, General Science, Social Studies, Geography and Current Events.
- The syllabus given below is designed to indicate the scope of these subjects included in this paper. The topics mentioned are not to be regarded as exhaustive and questions on topics of similar nature not specifically mentioned in the syllabus may also be asked. Candidate’s answers are expected to show their knowledge and intelligent understanding of the subject.
Section ‘A’ (Physics)
Physical Properties and States of Matter, Mass, Weight, Volume, Density and Specific Gravity, Principle of Archimedes, Pressure Barometer.
Motion of objects, Velocity and Acceleration, Newton’s Laws of Motion, Force and Momentum, Parallelogram of Forces, Stability and Equilibrium of bodies, Gravitation, elementary ideas of work, Power and Energy. Effects of Heat, Measurement of Temperature and Heat, change of State and Latent Heat, Modes of transference of Heat. Sound waves and their properties, Simple musical instruments. Rectilinear propagation of Light, Reflection and refraction. Spherical mirrors and Lenses, Human Eye.
Natural and Artificial Magnets, Properties of a Magnet, Earth as a Magnet. Static and Current Electricity, conductors and Non-conductors,
Ohm’s Law, Simple Electrical Circuits, Heating, Lighting and Magnetic effects of Current, Measurement of Electrical Power, Primary and Secondary Cells, Use of X-Rays. General Principles in the working of the following:
Simple Pendulum, Simple Pulleys, Siphon, Levers, Balloon, Pumps, Hydrometer, Pressure Cooker, Thermos Flask, Gramophone, Telegraphs, Telephone, Periscope, Telescope, Microscope, Mariner’s Compass; Lightening Conductors, Safety Fuses.
Section ‘B’ (Chemistry)
Physical and Chemical changes. Elements, Mixtures and Compounds, Symbols, Formulae and simple Chemical Equations, Law of Chemical Combination (excluding problems). Properties of Air and Water.
Preparation and Properties of Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen and Carbondioxide, Oxidation and Reduction. Acids, bases and salts. Carbon— different forms. Fertilizers—Natural and Artificial. Material used in the preparation of substances like Soap, Glass, Ink, Paper, Cement, Paints, Safety Matches and Gun-Powder. Elementary ideas about the structure of Atom, Atomic Equivalent and Molecular Weights, Valency.
Section ‘C’ (General Science)
Difference between the living and non-living. Basis of Life—Cells, Protoplasms and Tissues. Growth and Reproduction in Plants and Animals. Elementary knowledge of Human Body and its important organs. Common Epidemics, their causes and prevention.
Food—Source of Energy for man. Constituents of food, Balanced Diet. The Solar System—Meteors and Comets, Eclipses. Achievements of Eminent Scientists.
Section ‘D’ (History, Freedom Movement etc.)
A broad survey of Indian History, with emphasis on Culture and Civilisation. Freedom Movement in India. Elementary study of Indian Constitution and Administration. Elementary knowledge of Five Year Plans of India. Panchayati Raj, Co-operatives and Community Development. Bhoodan, Sarvodaya, National Integration and Welfare State, Basic Teachings of Mahatma Gandhi.
Forces shaping the modern world; Renaissance, Exploration and Discovery; War of American Independence. French Revolution, Industrial Revolution and Russian Revolution. Impact of Science and Technology on Society. Concept of one World, United Nations, Panchsheel, Democracy, Socialism and Communism. Role of India in the present world.
Section ‘E’ (Geography)
The Earth, its shape and size. Lattitudes and Longitudes, Concept of time. International Date Line. Movements of Earth and their effects. Origin of Earth. Rocks and their classification; Weathering—Mechanical and Chemical, Earthquakes and Volcanoes. Ocean Currents and Tides Atmosphere and its composition; Temperature and Atmospheric Pressure, Planetary Winds, Cyclones and Anti-cyclones; Humidity; Condensation and Precipitation; Types of Climate, Major Natural regions of the World. Regional Geography of India—Climate, Natural vegetation. Mineral and Power resources; location and distribution of agricultural and Industrial activities. Important Sea ports and main sea, land and air routes of India. Main items of Imports and Exports of India.
Section ‘F’ (Current Events)
Knowledge of Important events that have happened in India in the recent years. Current important world events. Prominent personalities—both Indian and International including those connected with cultural activities and sports.
NOTE : Out of maximum marks assigned to part ‘B’ of this paper, questions on Sections ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’, ‘D’, ‘E’ and ‘F’ will carry approximately 25%, 15%, 10%, 20%, 20% and 10% weightages respectively.
Intelligence and Personality Test
The SSB procedure consists of two stage Selection process – stage I and stage II. Only those candidates who clear the stage I are permitted to appear for stage II. The details are :
- Stage I comprises of Officer Intelligence Rating (OIR) tests are Picture Perception * Description Test (PP&DT). The candidates will be shortlisted based on combination of performance in OIR Test and PP&DT.
- Stage II Comprises of Interview, Group Testing Officer Tasks, Psychology Tests and the Conference. These tests are conducted over 4 days. The details of these tests are given on the website joinindianarmy.nic.in.
The personality of a candidate is assessed by three different assessors viz. The Interviewing Officer (IO), Group Testing Officer (GTO) and the Psychologist. There are no separate weightage for each test. The mks are allotted by assessors only after taking into consideration the performance of the candidate holistically in all the test. In addition, marks for Conference are also allotted based on the initial performance of the Candidate in the three techniques and decision of the Board. All these have equal weightage.
The various tests of IO, GTO and Psych are designed to bring out the presence/absence of Officer Like Qualities and their trainability in a candidate. Accordingly candidates are Recommended or Not Recommended at the SSB.
NDA 2018 HEIGHT/WEIGHT STANDARDS FOR NAVY
HEIGHT/WEIGHT STANDARDS FOR NAVY
|Height in||Weight in Kgs.|
“Individual’s weight is considered normal if it is within ±10% departure from average weight given in the table I and II”. However, in individuals with heavy bones and broad build as well as individuals with thin build but otherwise healthy this may be relaxed to some extent on merit.
NOTE 1 : To meet special requirement as a pilot in the Air Force the acceptable measurements of leg length, thigh length and sitting height will be as under :
|Leg Length||99.00 cms.||120.00 cms.|
|Thigh Length||—||64.00 cms.|
|Sitting Height||81.50 cms.||96.00 cms.|
- Chest should be well developed. Fully expanded chest should not be less than 81 cms. The minimum range of expansion after full inspiration should be 5 cms. The measurement will be taken with a tape so adjusted that its lower edge should touch the nipple in front and the upper part of the tape should touch the lower angle of the shoulder blades behind. X-Ray of the chest is compulsory and will be taken to rule out any disease of the chest.
- There should be no maldevelopment or impairment of function of the bones or joint.
- Past medical history of diseases or injury of the spine or sacro iliac joints, either with or without objective signs which have prevented the candidate from successfully following a physically active life, is a cause for rejection for commissioning in IAF. History of spinal fracture/prolapsed intervertebral disc and surgical treatment for these conditions will entail rejection. The following conditions detected radiologically during medical exam will disqualify a candidate for Air Force service:
- Granulomatous disease of spine
— Rheumatoid arthritis and allied disorders
— Ankylosing spondylitis
— Osteoarthrosis, spondylosis and degenerative joint disease
— Non articular rheumatism (e.g. lesions of the rotator cuff, tennis elbow, recurrent lumbago etc.)
— Miscellaneous disorders including SLE, , polymyositis, vasculitis.
- Compression fracture of vertebrae.
- Scheuerman’s disease (Adolescent kyphosis)
- Loss of cervical lordosis when associated with clinically restricted movements of cervical spine.
- Unilateral/Bilateral cervical ribs with demonstrable neurological or circulatory deficit.
- Scoliosis more than 10 degree as measured by Cobb’s method.
- Degenerative Disc. Disease.
- Presence of schmorl’s nodes at more than one level.
- Atlanto-occipital and atlantoaxial anomalies.
- Hemi vertebrae and/or incomplete block (fused) vertebrae at any level in cervical, dorsal or lumbar spine and complete block (fused) vertebrae at more than one level in cervical or dorsal spine.
- Unilateral Sacralisation or lumbarisation (Complete or incomplete) at all levels and bilateral incomplete sacralisation or lumbarisation.
- Any other abnormality if so considered by the specialist.
- Mild Kyphosis or Lordosis where deformity is barely noticeable and there is no pain or restriction of movement will not preclude acceptance.
- In case of noticeable Scoliosis or suspicion of any other abnormality or spinal deformity, more than mild, appropriate X-rays of the spine are to be taken and the Examinee referred for specialist’s advice.
- The following conditions detected on X-ray examination will be disqualifying for entry to Armed Forces :
- Granulomatius disease of spine.
- Scoliosis more than 15 degree as measured by Cobb’s Method (10 degree for Army and Navy).
- More than mild Kyphosis/Lordosis
- Herniated nucleus pulposes.
- Compression fracture of Vertebra.
- Sacaralisation Disease
- Cervical ribs with demonstrable neurological or Circulatory deficit.
- Presence of Schmorl’s node at more than one level.
- Atlanto-occipital and atlanto-axial anomalies.
- Incomplete Sacaralisation Unilateral or Bilateral
- Spina Bifida other than SV 1 and LV 5 if completely Sacralised
- Any other abnormality, if so considered by specialist.
(j) A candidate should have no past history of mental breakdown or fits.
- The hearing should be normal. A candidate should be able to hear a forced whisper with each ear at a distance of 610 cms. in a quiet room. There should be no evidence of present or past disease of the ear, nose and throat. Audiometric test will be done for AF. Audiometric hearing loss should not be greater than 20 db in frequencies between 250 and 8000 Hz. There is no impediment of speech.
- There should be no signs of functional or organic disease of the heart and blood vessels. Blood pressure should be normal.
- There should be no enlargement of liver or spleen. Any evidence of disease of internal organs of the abdomen will be a cause for rejection.
- Un-operated hernias will make a candidate unfit. In case of Hernia which has been operated, a minimum of one year must have passed prior to final medical examination before commencement of the course.
- There should be no hydrocele, varicocele or piles.
- Urine examination will be done and any abnormality if detected will be a cause for rejection.
- Any disease of skin which is likely to cause disability or disfigurement will also be a cause for rejection.
- Distance Vision (Corrected): Better Eye 6/6; Worse Eye 6/9. Myopia should not be more than -2.5D including astigmatism and manifest hypermetropia not more than +3.5D including Astigmatism. Internal examination of the eye will be done by means of ophthalmoscope to rule out any disease of the eye. A candidate must have good binocular vision. The Colour vision standard will be CP-II (DEFECTIVE SAFE). Candidates should be able to recognize white, signal red and signal green colours correctly as shown by Martin’s Lantern at a distance of 1.5 metre or read the requisite plate of Ishihara Book / Tokyo Medical College Book. Candidates who have undergone or have evidence for having undergone Radial Keratotomy, to improve the visual acuity will be permanently rejected for all the services. Candidates who have undergone Laser Surgery for correction of refractive error are also not acceptable to defence services.
|Vision standard for Naval candidates|
|Uncorrected without glass||6/6,||6/9|
|Corrected with glass||6/6,||6/6|
|Limits of Myopia||–0.75|
|Limits of Hypermetropia||+1.5|
|Limits of colour perception||I|
Visual Standards for Air Force
Candidates who habitually wear spectacles are not eligible for Air Force, Minimum distant vision 6/6 in one eye and 6/9 in other, correctable to 6/6 only for Hypermetropia. Colour vision CP-I Hypermetropia : +2.0 D Sph Manifest Myopia : Nil Retinoscopic Myopia : 0.5 in any Meridian permitted Astigmatism : + 0.75 D Cyl (within + 2.0 D.Max) Maddox Rod Test
(i) at 6 meters
- Exo-6 prism D
- Eso-6 prism D
- Hyper-1 prism D
- Hypro-1 prism D
(ii) at 33 cms
- Exo-16 prism D
- Eso-6 prism D
- Hyper-1 prism D
- Hypo-1 prism D
Hand held Stereoscope–All of BSV grades Convergence–Up to 10 cm Cover test for distant and near–Latent divergence/convergence recovery rapid and complete.
“Candidates who have undergone PRK (Photo Refractive Keratotomy / Lasik (Laser in Situ Keratomileusis) may be considered fit for commissioning in the Air
Force in all branches”. Candidates having undergone cataract surgery with or without IOL implants will also be declared unfit. Binocular vision must possess good binocular vision (fusion and stereopsis with good amplitude and depth).
- “Post PRK/Lasik candidates must meet the visual requirements required for the branch”.
- The following criteria must be satisfied prior to selecting post-PRK/LASIK at the time of Air Force Medical Examination:-
- LASIK surgery should not have been carried out before the age of 20 years.
- The axial length of the eye should not be more than 25.5 mm as measured by IOL master.
(iii)At least 12 months should have elapsed post uncomplicated stable LASIK with no history or evidence of any complication.
- The post LASIK corneal thickness as measured by a corneal pachymeter should not be less than 450 microns.
- Individual with high refractive errors (> 6D) prior to LASIK are to be excluded.
- Radial Keratotomy (RK) surgery for correction of refractive errors is not permitted for any Air Force duties. Candidates having undergone cataract surgery with or without IOL implants will also be declared unfit.
- USG abdomen examination will be carried out and any congential structural anomaly or disease of the abdominal organs will be a cause for rejection in Armed Forces.
- The candidates should have sufficient number of natural and sound teeth. A minimum of 14 dental points will be acceptable. When 32 teeth are present, the total dental points are 22. A candidate should not be suffering from severe pyorrhoea.
- Routine ECG for Air Force candidates must be within normal limits.
- Physical conditioning : Prospective candidates are advised to keep themselves in good physical condition, by following the under mentioned routine :—
- Running 2.4 km in 15 minutes
- Pushups and sit ups (minimum 20 each)
- Chin ups (minimum 08)
- Rope climbing 3-4 metres.
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