UPSC CDS 1 2018 Syllabus, Eligibility Conditions, Fees Apply, Last Date Combined Defence Services 1 2018
UPSC CDS 1 2018 Syllabus, Eligibility Conditions, Fees Apply, Last Date Combined Defence Services 1 2018
CDS 1 2018 Syllabus, Eligibility Conditions, Fees Apply, Last Date Combined Defence Services 1 2018
Fictitious Fee UPSC CDS 1 2018 Combined Defence Services 1 2018
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EXAMINATION NOTICE NO.2/2018.CDS-I DATED 08.11.2017 (Last Date for Submission of Applications: 04.12.2017)
COMBINED DEFENCE SERVICES EXAMINATION (I), 2018 [INCLUDING SSC WOMEN (NON-TECHNICAL) COURSE] (Commission’s Website www.upsc.gov.in) IMPORTANT
- CANDIDATES TO ENSURE THEIR ELIGIBILITY FOR THE EXAMINATION: The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfil all the eligibility conditions for admission to the Examination. Their admission at all the stages of the examination will be purely provisional subject to satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions.
Mere issue of Admission Certificate to the candidate will not imply that his candidature has been finally cleared by the Commission.
Verification of eligibility conditions with reference to original documents will be taken up only after the candidate has qualified for interview/Personality Test.
- HOW TO APPLY
Candidates are required to apply online by using the website www.upsconline.nic.in Brief instructions for filling up the online Application Form have been given in the Appendix-II. Detailed instructions are available on the above mentioned website.
- LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATIONS:
The Online Applications can be filled upto 04th December, 2017 till 6:00 PM.
- The eligible candidates shall be issued an e-Admit Card three weeks before the commencement of the examination. The e-Admit Card will be made available on the UPSC website (upsc.gov.in) for downloading by candidates. No e-Admit Card will be sent by post. All the applicants are required to provide valid & active e-mail i.d. while filling up online application form as the Commission may use electronic mode for contacting them.
- PENALITY FOR WRONG ANSWERS:
Candidates should note that there will be penalty (Negative Marking) for wrong answers marked by a candidate in the Objective Type Question Papers.
- For both writing and marking answers in the OMR sheet (Answer Sheet) candidates must use black ball pen only Pens with any other colour are prohibited. Do not use Pencil or Ink pen. Candidates should note that any omission/mistake/discrepancy in encoding/filling of details in the OMR answer sheet especially with regard to Roll Number and Test Booklet Series Code will render the answer sheet liable for rejection. Candidates are further advised to read carefully the “Special Instructions” contained in Appendix-III of the Notice.
- FACILITATION COUNTER FOR GUIDANCE OF CANDIDATES:
In case of any guidance/information/clarification regarding their application, candidature etc. candidates can contact UPSC’s Facilitation Counter near Gate ‘C’ of its campus in person or over Telephone No.011-23385271/011-23381125/011-23098543 on working days between 10.00 hrs. to 17.00 hrs.
- MOBILE PHONES BANNED:
- Mobiles phones, pagers/bluetooth or any other communication devices are not allowed inside the premises where the examination is being conducted. Any infringement of these instructions shall entail disciplinary action including ban from future examinations.
- Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the banned items including mobile phones/pagers/bluetooth or any valuable/costly items to the venue of the examination as arrangements for safe keeping cannot be assured. Commission will not be responsible for any loss in this regard.
CANDIDATES ARE REQUIRED TO APPLY ONLINE AT www.upsconline.nic.in ONLY. NO OTHER MODE IS ALLOWED FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATION.
GOVERNMENT STRIVES TO HAVE A WORKFORCE WHICH REFLECTS GENDER BALANCE AND WOMEN CANDIDATES ARE ENCOURAGED TO APPLY.
No.F.8/4/2017.E.I(B)—A Combined Defence Services Examination will be conducted by the Union Public Service Commission on 04th February, 2018 for admission to the under mentioned courses :—
Name of the Course and Approximate No. of Vacancies:
- Indian Military Academy, Dehradun— 100
146th (DE) Course commencing in January, 2019 [including 13 vacancies reserved for NCC `C’ Certificate (Army Wing) holders]
|2.||Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala—Course||45|
|commencing in January, 2019 Executive|
|(General Service) [including 06 vacancies|
|reserved for NCC ‘C’ Certificate holders|
|3.||Air Force Academy, Hyderabad—(Pre-Flying)||32|
|Training Course commencing in February, 2019|
|i.e. No. 205 F(P) Course.||225|
|4.||Officers’ Training Academy, Chennai (Madras)—|
|109th SSC (Men) Course (NT) commencing in|
|April, 2019. (including 50 vacancies for NCC ‘C’|
|certificate holders for NCC Spl. Entry)|
|5.||Officers Training Academy, Chennai—23rd||12|
|SSC Women (Non-Technical) Course|
|commencing in April, 2019.|
NOTE (i) : The date of holding the examination as mentioned above is liable to be changed at the discretion of the Commission.
NOTE (ii) : The number of vacancies given above is tentative and may be changed at any stage by Services H. Q.
N.B. (I) (a) : A candidate is required to specify clearly in respective column of the Online Application the Services for which he/she wishes to be considered in the
order of his/her preference. A male candidate is advised to indicate as many preferences as he wishes to, subject to the condition given at paras (b) and (c) below, so that having regard to his rank in the order of merit due consideration can be given to his preferences when making appointment.
Since women candidates are eligible for OTA only, they should give OTA as their first and only preference.
- (i) : If a male candidate is competing for Short Service Commission (Army) only, he should indicate OTA as the one and only choice. However, a male candidate competing for Short Service Commission Course at OTA as well as Permanent Commission course at IMA, Indian Naval Academy and Air Force Academy should indicate OTA as his last preference; otherwise OTA will be deemed to be the last choice even if it is given a higher preference by the candidate.
- (ii) : Women candidates are being considered only for Short Service Commission at OTA. They should indicate OTA as the only choice.
- Candidates who desire to join Air Force Academy must indicate AFA as first choice, as they have to be administered Computer Pilot Selection System (CPSS) and/or Pilot Aptitude Battery Test at one of the AFSBs and AF Medicals at Central Establishment/Institute of Aviation Medicines. Choice exercised for AFA as second/third etc. will be treated as invalid.
- Candidates should note that, except as provided in N.B. (II) below, they will be considered for appointment to those courses only for which they exercise their preference and for no other course(s).
- No request for addition/alteration in the preferences already indicated by a candidate in his/her application will be entertained by the Commission. No change of choice once exercised will be allowed. Second choice will come for consideration only when the first choice is not offered to the candidate by Services HQ. When first choice is offered and a candidate declines the same, his/her candidature will be cancelled for all other choices for regular Commission.
N.B. (II) The left-over candidates of IMA/Indian Naval Academy/Air Force Academy courses viz., those who have been recommended by the Union Public Service Commission for grant of Permanent Commission on the basis of the final results of this Examination, but who could not be inducted on these courses for any reason whatsoever may be considered for grant of SSC even if they have not indicated their choice for this course in their applications, if they are subsequently willing to be considered for this course subject to the following conditions :
- There is a shortfall after detailing all the candidates who competed for the SSC Course; and
- The candidates who are detailed for training even though they have not expressed their preference for SSC will be placed in the order of Merit List after the last candidate who had opted for this Course, as these candidates will be getting admission to the Course to which they are not entitled according to the preference expressed by them.
- Candidates with Air Force as first and only choice cannot be considered as left-over for grant of SSC (OTA) if they fail in Computer Pilot Selection System (CPSS) and/or Pilot Aptitude Battery Test. Such candidates, if they desire to be considered for SSC (OTA) should exercise their option for OTA also.
NOTE 1 : NCC ‘C’ Certificate (Army Wing/Senior Division Air Wing/Naval Wing) holders may also compete for the vacancies in the Short Service Commission Course but since there is no reservation of vacancies for them in this course, they will be
treated as general candidates for the purpose of filling up vacancies in this course. Candidates who have yet to pass NCC ‘C’ Certificate (Army Wing/Senior Division Air Wing/Naval Wing) examination, but are otherwise eligible to compete for the reserved vacancies, may also apply but they will be required to submit the proof of passing the NCC ‘C’ Certificate (Army Wing/Senior Division Air Wing/Naval Wing) examination to reach the IHQ of MoD (Army) / Dte Gen of Rtg (Rtg A) CDSE Entry for SSC male candidates and SSC women entry for female candidates West Block III, R. K. Puram, New Delhi-110066 in case of IMA/SSC first choice candidates and IHQ of MOD (Navy) DMPR, (OI&R Section), Room No. 204, ‘C’ Wing, Sena Bhawan, New Delhi-110 011 in case of Navy first choice candidates and PO 3 (A)/Air Headquarters ‘J’ Block, Room No. 17, Opp. Vayu Bhawan, Motilal Nehru Marg, New Delhi-110 106 in case of Air Force first choice candidates by 13th November, 2018. To be eligible to compete for reserved vacancies the candidates should have served for not less than 2 academic years in the Senior Division Army Wing and 3 academic years in the Senior Division Air Wing/Naval Wing of National Cadet Corps and should not have been discharged from the NCC for more than 24 months for IMA/Indian Naval Academy/Air Force Academy courses on the last date of receipt of Application in the Commission’s Office.
NOTE 2 : In the event of sufficient number of qualified NCC ‘C’ Certificate (Army Wing/Senior Division Air Wing/Naval Wing) holders not becoming available on the results of the examination to fill all the vacancies reserved for them in the Indian Military Academy Course/Air Force Academy Course/Indian Naval Academy Course, the unfilled reserved vacancies shall be treated as unreserved and filled by general candidates. Admission to the above courses will be made on the results of the written examination to be conducted by the Commission followed by intelligence and personality test by the Services Selection Board of candidates who qualify in the written examination. The details regarding the (a) scheme, standard, syllabus of the examination, (b) Instructions to candidates for filling up the Online Application Form (c) Special instructions to candidates to objective type tests (d) Guidelines with regard to physical standards for admission to the Academy and (e) Brief particulars of services etc. for candidates joining the Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Air Force Academy and Officers’ Training Academy are given in Appendices I, II, III, IV and V respectively.
- CENTRES OF EXAMINATION :
The Examination will be held at the following Centres :
AGARTALA, AHMEDABAD, AIZAWL, ALLAHABAD, BENGALURU, BAREILLY, BHOPAL, CHANDIGARH, CHENNAI, CUTTACK, DEHRADUN, DELHI, DHARWAD, DISPUR, GANGTOK, HYDERABAD, IMPHAL, ITANAGAR, JAIPUR, JAMMU, JORHAT, KOCHI, KOHIMA, KOLKATA, LUCKNOW, MADURAI, MUMBAI, NAGPUR, PANAJI (GOA), PATNA, PORT BLAIR, RAIPUR,
RANCHI, SAMBALPUR, SHILLONG, SHIMLA, SRINAGAR, THIRUVANANTHAPURAM, TIRUPATI, UDAIPUR AND VISAKHAPATNAM. Applicants should note that there will be a ceiling on the number of candidates allotted to each of the centres except Chennai, Delhi, Dispur, Kolkata and Nagpur. Allotment of Centres will be on the first-apply-first-allot basis and once the capacity of a particular centre is attained, the same will be frozen. Applicants, who cannot get
a centre of their choice due to ceiling, will be required to choose a Centre from the remaining ones. Applicants are, thus, advised that they may apply early so that they could get a Centre of their choice.
NB : “Notwithstanding the aforesaid provision, Commission reserve the right to change the Centres at their discretion if the situation demands.”
Candidates admitted to the examination will be informed of the time table and place or places of examination. Candidates should note that no request for change of centre will be granted.
NOTE : While filling in his/her online Application form, the candidates should carefully decide about his/her choice for the centre for the examination.
If any candidate appears at a Centre/Paper other than the one indicated by the Commission in his/her Admission Certificate, the papers of such a candidate will not be valued and his/her candidature will be liable to cancellation.
- CONDITIONS OF ELIGIBILITY:
- Nationality: A candidate must be unmarried and must either be:
- a Citizen of India, or
- a subject of Bhutan, or
- a subject of Nepal, or
- a Tibetan refugee who came over to India before the 1st January, 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India, or
- a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka and East African Countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire and Ethiopia or Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India.
Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India.
Certificate of eligibility will, however, not be necessary in the case of candidates who are Gorkha subjects of Nepal.
A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary, may be admitted to the examination provisionally subject to the necessary certificate being given to him/her by the Govt. before declaration of result by UPSC.
- Age Limits, Sex and Marital Status :
- For IMA—Unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 2nd January, 1995 and not later than 1st January, 2000 only are eligible.
- For Indian Naval Academy—Unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 2nd January, 1995 and not later than 1st January, 2000 only are eligible.
- For Air Force Academy—
20 to 24 years as on 1st January, 2019 i.e. born not earlier than 2nd January, 1995 and not later than 1st January, 1999 (Upper age limit for candidates holding valid and current Commercial Pilot Licence issued by DGCA (India) is relaxable upto 26 yrs. i.e. born not earlier than 2nd January, 1993 and not later than 1st January, 1999) only are eligible.
Note: Candidate below 25 years of age must be unmarried. Marriage is not permitted during training. Married candidates above 25 years of age are eligible to apply but during training period they will neither be provided married accommodation nor can they live with family out of the premises.
- For Officers’ Training Academy—(SSC Course for men) unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 2nd January, 1994 and not later than 1st January, 2000 only are eligible.
- For Officers’ Training Academy—(SSC Women Non-Technical Course) Unmarried women, issueless widows who have not remarried and issueless divorcees (in possession of divorce documents) who have not remarried are eligible. They should have been born not earlier than 2nd January, 1994 and not later than 1st January, 2000.
NOTE : Male divorcee/widower candidates cannot be treated as unmarried male for the purpose of their admission in IMA/INA/AFA courses and accordingly they are not eligible for these courses.
The date of birth accepted by the Commission is that entered in the Matriculation or Secondary School Leaving Certificate or in a certificate recognised by an Indian University as equivalent to Matriculation or in an extract from a Register of Matriculates maintained by a University, which extract must be certified by the proper authority of the University or in the Higher Secondary or an equivalent examination certificate. These certificates are required to be submitted only after the declaration of the result of the written part of the examination. No other document relating to age like horoscopes, affidavits, birth extracts from Municipal Corporation, service records and the like will be accepted.
The expression Matriculation/Higher Secondary Examination Certificate in this part of the instruction includes the alternative certificates mentioned above. Sometimes the Matriculation/Higher Secondary Examination Certificate does not show the date of birth, or only shows the age by completed years or completed years and months. In such cases a candidate must send in addition to the self attested/certified copy of Matriculation/Higher Secondary Examination Certificate a self attested/certified copy of a certificate from the Headmaster/Principal of the Institution from where he/she passed the Matriculation/Higher Secondary Examination showing the date of his/her birth or exact age as recorded in the Admission Register of the Institution.
NOTE 1 : Candidates should note that only the Date of Birth as recorded in the Matriculation/Higher Secondary Examination Certificate or an equivalent certificate on the date of submission of applications will be accepted by the Commission and no subsequent request for its change will be considered or granted.
NOTE 2 : Candidates should also note that once a Date of Birth has been claimed by them and entered in the records of the Commission for the purpose of admission to an Examination, no change will be allowed subsequently or at a subsequent examination on any ground whatsoever.
NOTE 3 : The candidates should exercise due care while entering their date of birth. If on verification at any subsequent stage any variation is found in their date of birth from the one entered in their Matriculation or equivalent examination certificate, disciplinary action will be taken against them by the Commission under the Rules.
- Educational Qualifications :
- For I.M.A. and Officers’ Training Academy— Degree of a recognised University or equivalent.
- For Indian Naval Academy—Degree in Engineering from a recognised University/Institution.
- For Air Force Academy—Degree of a recognised University (with Physics and Mathematics at 10+2 level) or Bachelor of Engineering.
Graduates with first choice as Army/Navy/Air Force are to submit proof of graduation provisional certificates on the date of commencement of the SSB Interview at the SSB.
Candidates who are studying in the final year/semester Degree course and have yet to pass the final year degree examination can also apply provided candidate should not have any present backlog upto the last semester / year for which results have been declared upto the time of submission of application and they will be required to submit proof of passing the degree examination at the time of commencement of course to reach the IHQ of MoD (Army), Rtg `A’. CDSE Entry, West Block III, R. K. Puram, New Delhi-110066 in case of IMA/SSC first choice candidates and Naval HQ “DMPR” (OI & R Section), Room No. 204, ‘C’ Wing, Sena Bhawan, New Delhi-110011 in case of Navy first choice candidates and PO3(A)/Air Headquarters, ‘J’ Block, Room No. 17, Opp. Vayu Bhawan, Motilal Nehru Marg, New Delhi-110 106 in case of Air Force first choice candidates by the following dates failing which their candidature will stand cancelled :
- For admission to IMA on or before 1st January, 2019, Indian Naval Academy on or before 1st January, 2019 and Air Force Academy on or before 13th November, 2018.
- For admission to Officers’ Training Academy, Chennai on or before 1st April, 2019.
Candidates possessing professional and technical qualifications which are recognised by government as equivalent to professional and technical degrees would also be eligible for admission to the examination.
In exceptional cases the Commission may treat a candidate, who does not possess any of the qualifications prescribed in this rule as educationally qualified provided that he/she possesses qualifications, the standard of which in the opinion of the Commission, justifies his/her admission to the examination.
NOTE I : Candidates, who have yet to pass their degree examination will be eligible only if they are studying in the final year of degree examination. Those candidates who have yet to qualify in the final year Degree Examination and are allowed to appear in the UPSC Examination should note that this is only a special concession given to them. They are required to submit proof of passing the Degree Examination by the prescribed date and no request for extending this date will be entertained on the grounds of late conduct of basic qualifying University Examination, delay in declaration of results or any other ground whatsoever. Candidates who are studying in the final year/semester degree course are required to submit at the time of SSB interview a bonafide certificate issued by University/College stating that they will be able to submit their proof of passing the
graduation degree examination by the specified date, failing which their candidature will be cancelled.
NOTE II : Candidates who are debarred by the Ministry of Defence from holding any type of commission in the Defence Services shall not be eligible for admission to the examination and if admitted, their candidature will be cancelled.
NOTE III : In the event of Air Force candidates being suspended from Flying training for failure to learn flying, they would be absorbed in the Navigation Branch of the IAF. This will be subject to availability of vacancies and fulfilling the laid down qualitative requirements (including 60% in graduation).
(d) Physical Standards :
Candidates must be physically fit according to physical standards for admission to Combined Defence Services Examination (I), 2018 as per guidelines given in Appendix-IV.
- FEE :
Candidates (excepting Female/SC/ST candidates who are exempted from
payment of fee) are required to pay a fee of Rs. 200/- (Rupees Two Hundred Only) either by depositing the money in any Branch of SBI by cash, or by using net banking facility of SBI, State Bank of Bikaner & Jaipur/State Bank of Hyderabad/State Bank of Mysore/State Bank of Patiala/State Bank of Travancore or by using Visa/Master Credit/Debit Card.
Note.1 : Applicants who opt for “Pay by Cash” mode should print the system generated Pay in-slip during Part-II registration and deposit the fee at the counter of SBI Branch on the next working day only. “Pay by Cash” mode option will be deactivated at 11:59 PM of 03.12.2017 i.e. one day before the closing date. However, applicants who have generated their Pay-in slip before it is de-activated may pay at the counter of SBI Branch during banking hours on the closing date. Such applicants who are unable to pay by cash on the closing date i.e. during banking hours at SBI Branch, for reason whatsoever, even if holding a valid Pay-in-Slip will have no other offline option but to opt for online Debit/Credit Card or internet Banking Payment mode on the closing date i.e. till 6:00 PM of 04.12.2017.
NOTE 2 : Candidates should note that payment of examination fee can be made only through the modes prescribed above. Payment of fee through any other mode is neither valid nor acceptable. Applications submitted without the prescribed fee/mode (unless remission of fee is claimed) shall be summarily rejected.
NOTE 3 :. Fee once paid shall not be refunded under any circumstances nor can the fee be held in reserve for any other examination or selection.
NOTE 4 : For the applicants in whose case payments details have not been received from the bank, they will be treated as fictitious payment cases and their applications will be rejected in the first instance. A list of all such applicants shall be made available on the Commission website within two weeks after the last day of submission of online application. The applicants shall be required to submit the proof of their fee payment within 10 days from the date of such communication either by hand or by speed post to the Commission. On receipt of documentary proof, genuine fee payment cases will be considered and their applications will be revived, if they are otherwise eligible.
ALL FEMALE CANDIDATES AND CANDIDATES BELONGING TO SCHEDULED CASTES/SCHEDULED TRIBES ARE NOT REQUIRED TO PAY ANY
FEE. NO FEE EXEMPTION IS, HOWEVER, AVAILABLE TO OBC CANDIDATES AND THEY ARE REQUIRED TO PAY THE FULL PRESCREIBED FEE.
- HOW TO APPLY :
Candidates are required to apply Online using the link www.upsconline.nic.in
Detailed instructions for filling up Online Applications are available on the above-mentioned website.
The applicants are advised to submit only single application; however if due to any unavoidable situation, if he/she submits another/multiple applications, then he/she must ensure that application with the higher RID (Registration ID) is complete in all respects like applicants’ details, examination centre, photograph, signature, fee etc. The applicants who are submitting multiple applications should note that only the applications with higher RID (Registration ID) shall be entertained by the Commission and fee paid against one RID shall not be adjusted against any other RID.
All candidates whether already in Government Service including candidates serving in the Armed Forces, Government owned industrial undertakings or other similar organizations or in private employment should submit their applications online direct to the Commission.
N.B.I: Persons already in Government Service, whether in permanent or temporary capacity or as work charged employees other than casual or daily rated employees or those serving under the Public Enterprises are, however, required to inform their Head of Office/Department in writing that they have applied for the Examination.
N.B.II: Candidates serving in the Armed Forces are required to inform their Commanding Officer in writing that they have applied for this examination. They are also required to submit NOC in this regard at the time of SSB interview.
Candidates should note that in case a communication is received from their employer by the Commission withholding permission to the candidates applying for/appearing at the examination, their applications will be liable to be rejected/candidatures will be liable to be cancelled.
NOTE : APPLICATIONS WITHOUT THE PRESCRIBED FEE (UNLESS REMISSION OF FEE IS CLAIMED AS IN PARA 4 ABOVE) OR INCOMPLETE APPLICATIONS SHALL BE SUMMARILY REJECTED.
No representation or correspondence regarding such rejection shall be entertained under any circumstances. Candidates are not required to submit alongwith their applications any certificate in support of their claims regarding age, educational qualifications, Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe/OBC and fee remission etc.
The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfil all the eligibility conditions for admission to the examination.
Their admission at all the stages of examination for which they are admitted by the Commission viz. written examination and interview test will be purely provisional, subject to their satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. If on verification at any time before or after the written examination or Interview Test, it is found that they do not fulfil any of the eligibility conditions, their candidature for the examination will be cancelled by the Commission.
Candidates are advised to keep ready the following documents in original alongwith their self attested copies soon after the declaration of the result of the written part of
the examination which is likely to be declared in the month of May, 2018 for submission to the Army HQ/Naval HQ/Air HQ as the case may be :
- Matric/Higher Secondary School Certificate or its equivalent showing date of
- Degree/Provisional Degree Certificate/Marks sheet showing clearly having passed degree examination and eligible for award of degree.
In the first instance all qualified candidates eligible for SSB interview will carry their original Matric/Higher Secondary School Certificate as also their Degree/Provisional Degree Certificate/Marks sheet with them while going to the Services Selection Centres for SSB interview. Candidates who have not yet qualified the final year Degree examination must carry with them a certificate in original from the Principal of the College/Institution stating that the candidate has appeared/is appearing at the final year Degree examination. Candidates who do not carry the above certificates with them while going to the Services Selection Centres shall not be allowed to appear for the SSB interview. No relaxation for non-submission of the above certificates in original at the selection centre is allowed, and candidates who do not carry with them any of these certificates in original will not be permitted to appear for their SSB test and interview and they will be sent back home at their own expense.
If any of their claims is found to be incorrect/false/fraud/fabricated they may render themselves liable to disciplinary action by the Commission in terms of the following provisions:
A candidate who is or has been declared by the Commission to be guilty of :
- obtaining support for his/her candidature by any means, or
- impersonating, or
- procuring impersonation by any person, or
- submitting fabricated documents or documents which have been tampered with, or
- making statements which are incorrect or false or suppressing material information, or
- resorting to any other irregular or improper means in connection with his/her candidature for the examination, or
- using unfair means during the examination, or
- writing irrelevant matter, including obscene languages or pornographic matter, in the script(s), or
- misbehaving in any other manner in the examination hall, or
- harassing or doing bodily harm to the staff employed by the Commission for the conduct of their examination, or
- being in possession of or using mobile phone, pager or any electronic equipment or device or any other equipment capable of being used as a communication device during the examination, or
- violating any of the instructions issued to candidates alongwith their
Admission Certificates permitting them to take the examination, or
- attempting to commit or as the case may be abetting the commission of all or any of the acts specified in the foregoing clauses, may in addition to rendering himself/herself liable to criminal prosecution be liable:
- to be disqualified by the Commission from the examination for which he/she is a candidate and/or
- to be debarred either permanently or for a specified period :
- by the Commission from any examination or selection held by them;
- by the Central Government from any employment under them; and
- if he/she is already in service under Government to disciplinary action
under the appropriate rules.
Provided that no penalty under this rules shall be imposed except after,
- giving the candidate an opportunity of making such representation, in writing as he/she may wish to make in that behalf; and
- taking the representation, if any, submitted by the candidate within the period allowed to him/her into consideration.
- LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATIONS:
The Online Applications can be filled upto 04th December, 2017 till 6:00 PM.
- CORRESPONDENCE WITH THE COMMISSION/ARMY/NAVAL/AIR HEAD QUARTERS.
The Commission will not enter into any correspondence with the candidates about their candidature except in the following cases :
- The eligible candidates shall be issued an e-Admit Card three weeks before the commencement of the examination. The e-Admit Card will be made available in the UPSC website [www.upsc.gov.in] for downloading by
candidates. No Admit Card will be sent by post. For downloading the e-Admit Card the candidate must have his/her vital parameters like RID & Date of Birth or Roll No. (if received) & date of birth or name, Father’s name
& Date of Birth available with him/her.
- If a candidate does not receive his/her e-Admit Card or any other communication regarding his/her candidature for the examination three weeks before the commencement of the examination, he/she should at once contact the Commission. Information in this regard can also be obtained from the Facilitation Counter located in the Commission’s Office either in person or over phone Nos. 011-23381125/011-23385271/011-23098543. In case no communication is received in the Commission’s Office from the candidate regarding non-receipt of his/her e-Admit Card at least 3 weeks before the examination, he/she himself/herself will be solely responsible for non-receipt of his/her e-Admit Card.
No candidate will ordinarily be allowed to take the examination unless he/she holds an e-Admit Card for the examination. On downloading of Admit Card, check it carefully and bring discrepancies/errors, if any, to the notice of UPSC immediately.
The courses to which the candidates are admitted will be according to their eligibility as per age and educational qualifications for different courses and the preferences given by the candidates.
The candidates should note that their admission to the examination will be purely provisional based on the information given by them in the Application Form. This will be subject to verification of all the eligibility conditions.
- The decision of the Commission as to the acceptance of the application of a candidate and his/her eligibility or otherwise for admission to the Examination shall be final.
- Candidates should note that the name in the e-Admit Card in some cases, may be abbreviated due to technical reasons.
- Candidates must ensure that their e-mail IDs given in their applications are valid and active.
IMPORTANT: All communications to the Commission/Army Headquarters should invariably contain the following particulars.
- Name and year of the examination.
- Registration ID (RID)
- Roll Number (if received)
- Name of candidate (in full and in block letters)
- Complete Postal Address as given in the application with telephone number, if any.
N.B. (i) Communications not containing the above particulars may not be attended to.
N.B. (ii) If a letter/communication is received from a candidate after an examination has been held and it does not give his/her full name and Roll number, it will be ignored and no action will be taken thereon.
N.B. (iii) Candidates recommended by the Commission for interview by the Services Selection Board who have changed their addresses subsequent to the submission of their application for the examination should immediately after announcement of the result of the written part of the examination notify the changed address, along with an unstamped self addressed envelope, also to IHQ of MoD (Army)/Dte Gen Of Rtg (Rtg A) CDSE Entry Section for males and SSC Women Entry Section for women candidates, West Block-III, Ground Floor, Wing 1, Ramakrishnapuram, New Delhi-110066 in case of IMA/SSC first choice candidates and IHQ of MOD(Navy) DMPR (OI&R Section), Room No. 204, ‘C’ Wing, Sena Bhawan, New Delhi-110011 in case of Navy first choice candidates, and PO 3 (A) Air HQS. ‘J’ Block, Room No. 17, Opp. Vayu Bhawan, Motilal Nehru Marg, New Delhi-110 106 in case of Air Force first choice candidates. Failure to comply with this instruction will deprive the candidate of any claim to consideration in the event of his/her not receiving the summon letter for interview by the Services Selection Board. For all queries regarding allotment of centres, date of SSB interview, merit list, Joining Instructions, and any other relevant information regarding selection process, please visit website www.joinindianarmy.nic.in or contact Recruiting Directorate on Tele No.: (011)-26173215 and Fax No.: 011-26196205 between 1400hrs to 1700hrs on all working days in case of candidates having IMA or OTA as their first choice and PO3 (A)/Air Headquarters, ‘J’ Block, Room No. 17, Opp. Vayu Bhawan, Motilal Nehru Marg, New Delhi-110 106 in the case of candidates having Air Force as first choice and IHQ of MOD (NAVY)DMPR (OI&R Section), Room No. 204, ‘C’ Wing, Sena Bhawan, New Delhi-110011 in the case of candidates having Navy as first choice.
Candidates are requested to report for SSB interview on the date intimated to them in the call up letter for interview. Requests for postponing interview will only be considered in very genuine circumstances and that too if it is administratively convenient for which Army Headquarters/Air Headquarter/Naval HQ will be the sole deciding authority. Such requests should be sent to Selection Centre/SSB from where the call for SSB interview has been received. Navy candidates can download their call letters from the naval website www.nausena-bharti.nic.in or send email at officer-navy”nic.in three weeks after publication of results.
N.B. In case a candidate does not get the interview call for SSB interview for IMA by 4th week of August, 2018 and by 4th week of November, 2018 for OTA, he/she should write to Army Headquarters/Rtg. CDSE Entry/SSC Women Entry for Officers Training Academy, West Block-III, Ramakrishnapuram, New Delhi-110066 or contact on telephone No. 26173215 regarding non-receipt of the call-up letter. For similar query by the Navy/Air Force candidates, having first choice as given ibid, should write to Naval Hqrs. or Air Hqrs. as mentioned in N.B. III (in case of non-receipt of call by 4th week of August, 2018).
- ANNOUNCEMENT OF THE RESULTS OF THE WRITTEN EXAMINATION, INTERVIEW OF QUALIFIED CANDIDATES,
ANNOUNCEMENT OF FINAL RESULTS AND ADMISSION TO THE TRAINING COURSES OF THE FINALLY QUALIFIED CANDIDATES.
The Union Public Service Commission shall prepare a list of candidates who obtain the minimum qualifying marks in the written examination as fixed by the Commission in their discretion. Candidates who are declared successful in the written exam will be detailed for intelligence and personality test at the Service Selection Board based on their preference by the respective service HQ.
CANDIDATES WHO HAVE QUALIFIED IN THE WRITTEN EXAM. ARE REQUIRED TO REGISTER THEMSELVES ON THE RECRUITING DIRECTORATE WEBSITE WWW.JOININDIANARMY.NIC.IN IN ORDER TO ENABLE THEM TO RECEIVE CALL UP FOR
SSB INTERVIEW. The email ID registered with DG Recruiting Website i.e. www. Joinindianarmy.nic.in and that given to UPSC Results of the test conducted by Service Selection Board will hold good for all the courses [i.e. Indian Military Academy (DE) Course, Dehradun, Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala Course, Air Force Academy (Pre-Flying) Course, Hyderabad and SSC (NT) Course at OTA, Chennai] for which the candidate has qualified in the written exam, irrespective of the service HQ conducting it. Two-stage selection procedure based on Psychological Aptitude Test and intelligence Test has been introduced at Service Selection Boards. All the candidates will be put to stage one test on first day of reporting at Selection Centres. Only those candidates who qualify at stage one will be admitted to the second stage/remaining tests and all those who fail to pass stage one, will be returned. Only those candidate who qualify at stage two will be required to submit photocopy each of:—(i) Matriculation pass certificate or equivalent in support of date of birth, (ii) Bachelors Degree/Provisional Degree alongwith mark sheets of all the years/semesters in support of educational qualification.
Candidates will appear before the Services Selection Board and undergo the test there at their own risk and will not be entitled to claim any compensation or other relief from Government in respect of any injury which they may sustain in the course of or as a result of any of the tests given to them at the Services Selection Board whether due to the negligence of any person or otherwise. Candidates will be required to sign a certificate to this effect on the form appended to the application.
To be acceptable, candidates should secure the minimum qualifying marks separately in (i) written examination and (ii) SSB test as fixed by the Commission and Service Selection Board respectively in their discretion. The candidates will be placed in the order of merit on the basis of the total marks secured by them in the written examination and in the SSB tests. The form and manner of communication of the result of the examination to individual candidates shall be decided by the Commission in their discretion and the Commission will not enter into correspondence with them regarding the result.
Success at the examination confers no right of admission to the Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Air Force Academy or the Officers’ Training Academy as the case may be. The final selection will be made in order of merit subject to medical fitness and suitability in all other respects and number of vacancies available.
NOTE: Every candidate for the Air Force and Naval Aviation is given Pilot Aptitude Test only once. The Grade secured by him at the first test (CPSS and/or PABT) will therefore hold good for every subsequent interview at the Air Force Selection Board. Those who have failed Indian Navy Selection Board/Computer
Pilot Selection System (CPSS) and/or Pilot Aptitude Battery Test earlier and those who habitually wear spectacles are not eligible for Air Force.
TEST/INTERVIEW AT AIR FORCE SELECTION BOARDS FOR THOSE CANDIDATES WHO APPLY FOR AIR FORCE THROUGH MORE THAN ONE SOURCE:—There are three modes of entry in F (P) course viz. CDSE/NCC/Airmen. Candidates who apply for the Air Force through more than one source will be tested/interviewed at the Air Force Selection Boards only once for Air Force. Common candidates who fail in Computer Pilot Selection System (CPSS) and/ or Pilot Aptitude Battery tests as an NCC or Airmen candidate will be called again for OLQ testing for Army/Navy/OTS only if it is found that they have applied through CDS Exam. Candidates who qualify in the written examination for IMA (D.E.) Course and/or Navy (S.E.) Course and/or Air Force Academy course irrespective of whether they have also qualified for SSC Course or not will be detailed for SSB test in August-September, 2018 and candidates who qualify for SSC Course only will be detailed for SSB tests in October to December, 2018.
- DISQUALIFICATION FOR ADMISSION TO THE TRAINING COURSE: Candidates who were admitted to an earlier course at the National Defence Academy, Indian Military Academy, Air Force Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Officers’ Training Academy, Chennai but were removed there from on disciplinary ground will not be considered for admission to the Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Air Force Academy or for grant of Short Service Commission in the Army.
Candidates who were previously withdrawn from the Indian Military Academy for lack of Officer-like qualities will not be admitted to the Indian Military Academy.
Candidates who were previously selected as Special Entry Naval Cadets but were withdrawn from the National Defence Academy or from Naval Training Establishments for lack of Officer-like qualities will not be eligible for admission to the Indian Navy.
Candidates who were withdrawn from Indian Military Academy, Officers’ Training Academy, NCC and Graduate course for lack of Officer-like qualities will not be considered for grant of Short Service Commission in the Army.
Candidates who were previously withdrawn from the NCC and Graduates’ course for lack of Officer-like qualities will not be admitted to the Indian Military Academy.
- RESTRICTIONS ON MARRIAGE DURING TRAINING IN THE INDIAN MILITARY ACADEMY OR IN THE INDIAN NAVAL ACADEMY OR IN THE AIR FORCE ACADEMY:
Candidates for the Indian Military Academy Course or Naval Academy Course or Indian Air Force Academy Course or women candidates joining Officers’ Training Academy must undertake not to marry until they complete their full training. A candidate who marries subsequent to the date of his/her application though successful at this or any subsequent examination will not be selected for training. A candidate who marries during training shall be discharged and will be
liable to refund all expenditure incurred on him/her by the Government.
Read . Candidates must undertake not to marry until they complete their full training. A candidate who marries subsequent to the date of his application, through successful at the written examination, or service Selection Board interview
of medical examination will not be eligible for training. A candidate who marries during this period, shall be discharged and will be liable to refund all expenditure incurred on him by the Goverment.
- OTHER RESTRICTIONS DURING TRAINING IN THE INDIAN MILITARY ACADEMY OR IN THE INDIAN NAVAL ACADEMY OR IN THE AIR FORCE ACADEMY:
After admission to the Indian Military Academy or the Indian Naval Academy or the Air Force Academy, candidates will not be considered for any other commission. They will also not be permitted to appear for any interview or examination after they have been finally selected for training in the Indian Military Academy or the Indian Naval Academy or the Air Force Academy.
- NO REQUEST FOR WITHDRAWAL OF CANDIDATURE RECEIVED FROM A CANDIDATE AFTER HE/SHE HAS SUBMITTED HIS/HER APPLICATION WILL BE ENTERTAINED UNDER ANY CIRCUMSTANCES.
Union Public Service Commission
The scheme, standard and syllabus of the examination
- SCHEME OF EXAMINATION
- The Competitive examination comprises:
- Written examination as shown in para 2 below.
- Interview for intelligence and personality test (vide Part ‘B’ of this Appendix) of such candidates as may be called for interview at one of the Services Selection Centres.
- The subjects of the written examination, the time allowed and the maximum marks allotted to each subject will be as follows:
(a) For Admission to Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy and Air Force Academy:—
|2.||General Knowledge||2 Hours||100|
|3.||Elementary Mathematics||2 Hours||100|
|(b) For Admission to Officers’ Training Academy :—|
|2.||General Knowledge||2 Hours||100|
The maximum marks allotted to the written examination and to the interviews will be equal for each course i.e. the maximum marks allotted to the written examination and to the interviews will be 300, 300, 300 and 200 each for admission to the Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Air Force Academy and Officers’ Training Academy respectively.
- The papers in all the subjects will consist of objective type questions only. The question papers (Test Booklets) of General Knowledge and Elementary Mathematics will be set bilingually in Hindi as well as English.
- In the question papers, wherever necessary, questions involving the metric system of Weights and Measures only will be set.
- Candidates must write the papers in their own hand. In no circumstances will they be allowed the help of a scribe to write answers for them.
- The Commission have discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all the subjects of the examination.
- The candidates are not permitted to use calculator for answering objective type papers (Test Booklets). They should not therefore, bring the same inside the Examination Hall.
- STANDARD AND SYLLABUS OF THE EXAMINATION
The standard of the papers in Elementary Mathematics will be of Matriculation level. The standard of papers in other subjects will approximately be such as may be expected of a graduate of an Indian University.
ENGLISH (Code No. 01)
The question paper will be designed to test the candidates’ understanding of English and workmanlike use of words.
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (Code No. 02)
General Knowledge including knowledge of current events and of such matters of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person who has not made a special study of any scientific subject. The paper will also include questions on History of India and Geography of a nature which candidate should be able to answer without special study.
ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS (Code No. 03)
Number System—Natural numbers, Integers, Rational and Real numbers. Fundamental operations, addition, substraction, multiplication, division, Square roots, Decimal fractions. Unitary method, time and distance, time and work, percentages, applications to simple and compound interest, profit and loss, ratio and proportion, variation.
Elementary Number Theory—Division algorithm. Prime and composite numbers. Tests of divisibility by 2, 3, 4, 5, 9 and 11. Multiples and factors. Factorisation Theorem. H.C.F. and L.C.M. Euclidean algorithm. Logarithms to base 10, laws of logarithms, use of logarithmic tables.
Basic Operations, simple factors, Remainder Theorem, H.C.F., L.C.M., Theory of polynomials, solutions of quadratic equations, relation between its roots and coefficients (Only real roots to be considered). Simultaneous linear equations in two unknowns—analytical and graphical solutions. Simultaneous linear inequations in two variables and their solutions. Practical problems leading to two simultaneous linear equations or inequations in two variables or quadratic equations in one variable & their solutions. Set language and set notation, Rational expressions and conditional identities, Laws of indices.
Sine ×, cosine ×, Tangent × when 0° < × < 90° Values of sin ×, cos × and tan ×, for × = 0°, 30°, 45°, 60° and 90°
Simple trigonometric identities.
Use of trigonometric tables.
Simple cases of heights and distances.
Lines and angles, Plane and plane figures, Theorems on (i) Properties of angles at a point, (ii) Parallel lines, (iii) Sides and angles of a triangle, (iv) Congruency of triangles, (v) Similar triangles, (vi) Concurrence of medians and altitudes, (vii) Properties of angles, sides and diagonals of a parallelogram, rectangle and square,
- Circles and its properties including tangents and normals, (ix) Loci.
Areas of squares, rectangles, parallelograms, triangle and circle. Areas of figures which can be split up into these figures (Field Book), Surface area and volume of cuboids, lateral surface and volume of right circular cones and cylinders, surface area and volume of spheres.
Collection and tabulation of statistical data, Graphical representation frequency polygons, histograms, bar charts, pie charts etc. Measures of central tendency.
INTELLIGENCE AND PERSONALITY TEST
The SSB procedure consists of two stage Selection process – stage I and stage II. Only those candidates who clear the stage I are permitted to appear for stage II. The details are:-
(a) Stage I comprises of Officer Intelligence Rating (OIR) tests are Picture Perception* Description Test (PP&DT). The candidates will be shortlisted based on combination of performance in OIR Test and PP&DT.
(b) Stage II Comprises of Interview, Group Testing Officer Tasks, Psychology Tests and the Conference. These tests are conducted over 4 days. The details of these tests are given on the website www.joinindianarmy.nic.in.
The personality of a candidate is assessed by three different assessors viz. The Interviewing Officer (IO), Group Testing Officer (GTO) and the Psychologist. There are no separate weightage for each test. The mks are allotted by assessors only after taking into consideration the performance of the candidate holistically in all the test. In addition, marks for Conference are also allotted based on the initial performance of the Candidate in the three techniques and decision of the Board. All these have equal weightage.
The various tests of IO, GTO and Psych are designed to bring out the presence/absence of Officer Like Qualities and their trainability in a candidate. Accordingly candidates are Recommended or Not Recommended at the SSB.
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES FOR FILLING ONLINE APPLICATION
Candidates are required to apply online by using the website www.upsconline.nic.in
Salient Features of the system to Online Applications Form are given hereunder:
Detailed instructions for filling up Online Applications are available on the above mentioned website.
Candidates will be required to complete the Online Application form containing two stages viz. Part I and Part II as per the instructions available in the above mentioned site through drop down menu.
The candidates are required to pay a fee of Rs. 200/- (Rupees two hundred only) [except SC/ST candidates and those specified in Note-2 of Point 4 (Fee) of the Notice who are exempted from payment of fee] either by depositing the money in any branch of SBI by cash or by using net banking facility of State Bank of India/State Bank of Bikaner & Jaipur/State Bank of Hyderabad/State Bank of Mysore/State Bank of Patiala/State Bank of Travancore or by using any Visa/Master/ Rupay Credit/Debit Card.
Before start filling up Online Application, a candidate must have his photograph and signature duly scanned in the .jpg format in such a manner that each file should not exceed 40 KB and must not be less than 3 KB in size for the photograph and 1 KB for the signature.
The Online Applications (Part I and II) can be filled from 08th November, 2017 to 04th December, 2017 till 6:00 PM.
Applicants should avoid submitting multiple applications. However, if due to any unavoidable circumstances any applicant submits multiple applications then he must ensure that the applications with higher RID is complete in all respects.
In case of multiple applications, the applications with higher RID shall be entertained by the Commission and fee paid against one RID shall not be adjusted against any other RID.
The applicants must ensure that while filling their Application Form, they are providing their valid and active E-mail Ids as the Commission may use electronic mode of communication while contacting them at different stages of examination process.
The applicants are advised to check their e-mails at regular intervals and ensure that the email address ending with @nic.in are directed to their inbox folder and not to the SPAM folder or any other folder.
Candidates are strongly advised to apply online well in time without waiting for the last date for submission of online application.
Special Instructions to Candidates for objective type tests
- Articles permitted inside Examination Hall
Clip board or hard board (on which nothing is written) a good quality Black Ball Pen for marking responses on the Answer Sheet. Answer Sheet and sheet for rough work will be supplied by the invigilator.
- Articles not permitted inside Examination Hall
Do not bring into the Examination Hall any article other than those specified above e.g. books, notes, loose sheets, electronic or any other type of calculators, mathematical and drawing instruments, Log Tables, stencils of maps, slide rules, Test Booklets and rough sheets pertaining to earlier session(s) etc.
Mobiles, phones, Bluetooth, pagers or any other communication devices are not allowed inside the premises where the examination is being conducted. Any infringement of these instructions shall entail disciplinary action including ban from future examinations.
Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the banned items including mobile phones/Bluetooth/pagers to the venue of the examination, as arrangements for safekeeping cannot be assured. Candidates are advised not to bring any valuable/costly items to the Examination Halls, as safe keeping of the same cannot be assured. Commission will not be responsible for any loss in this regard.
- Penalty for wrong Answers
THERE WILL BE PENALTY (NEGATIVE MARKING) FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
- There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate. One third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as
- If a candidate given more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above for that question.
- If a question is left blank i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there
will be no penalty for that question.
- Unfair means strictly prohibited
No candidate shall copy from the papers of any other candidate nor permit his papers to be copied nor give nor attempt to give nor obtain nor attempt to obtain irregular assistance of any description.
- Conduct in Examination Hall
No candidate should misbehave in any manner or create disorderly scene in the Examination Hall or harass the staff employed by the Commission for the conduct of the examination. Any such misconduct will be severely penalised.
- Answer Sheet particulars
- Write with Black ball pen your Centre and subject followed by test booklet series (in bracket), subject code and roll number at the appropriate space provided on the answer sheet at the top. Also encode your booklet series (A, B, C, or D as the case may be), subject code and roll number in the circles provided for the purpose in the answer sheet. The guidelines for writing the above particulars and for encoding the above particulars are given in Annexure. In case the booklet series is not printed on the test booklet or answer sheet is un-numbered, please report immediately to the invigilator and get the test booklet/answer sheet replaced.
- Candidates should note that any omission/mistakes/discrepancy in encoding/filling of details in the OMR answer sheet, especially with regard to Roll Number and Test Booklet Series Code, will render the answer sheet liable for rejection.
- Immediately after commencement of the examination please check that the test booklet supplied to you does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items etc., if so, get it replaced by a complete test booklet of the same series and subject.
- Do not write your name or anything other than the specific items of information asked for, on the answer sheet/test booklet/sheet for rough work.
- Do not fold or mutilate or damage or put any extraneous marking in the Answer Sheet. Do not write anything on the reverse of the answer sheet.
- Since the answer sheets will be evaluated on computerised machines, candidates should exercise due care in handling and filling up the answer sheets. They should use black ball pen only to darken the circles. For writing in boxes, they should use black ball pen. Since the entries made by the candidates by darkening the circles will be taken into account while evaluating the answer sheets on computerised machines, they should make these entries very carefully and accurately.
- Method of marking answers
In the ‘OBJECTIVE TYPE’ of examination, you do not write the answers. For each question (hereinafter referred to as “Item”) several suggested answers (hereinafter referred to as “Responses”) are given. You have to choose one response to each item. The question paper will be in the Form of TEST BOOKLET. The booklet will contain item bearing numbers 1, 2, 3…….etc. Under each item, Responses marked (a), (b), (c), (d) will be given.
Your task will be to choose the correct response. If you think there is more 22
than one correct response, then choose what you consider the best response.
In any case, for each item you are to select only one response, if you select more than one response, your response will be considered wrong.
In the Answer Sheet, Serial Nos. From 1 to 160 are printed. Against each numbers, there are circles marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). After you have read each item in the Test Booklet and decided which one of the given responses is correct or the best. You have to mark your response by completely blackening with black ball pen to indicate your response.
For example, if the correct answer to item 1 is (b), then the circle containing the letter (b) is to be completely blackened with black ball pen as shown below :- Example : (a) • (c) (d).
- Candidates must write the papers in their own hand. In no circumstances will they be allowed the help of a scribe.
- Entries in Scannable Attendance List.
Candidates are required to fill in the relevant particulars with black ball pen only against their columns in the Scannable Attendance List, as given below.
- Blacken the circle (P) under the column (Present/Absent)
- Blacken the relevant circle for Test Booklet Series
- Write Test Booklet Serial No.
- Write the Answer Sheet Serial No. and also blacken the Corresponding circles below.
- Append signature in the relevant column.
- Please read and abide by the instructions on the cover of Test Booklet. If any candidate indulges in disorderly or improper conduct he will render himself liable for disciplinary action and/or imposition of a penalty as the Commission may deem fit.
How to fill in the Answer Sheet of objective type tests in the Examination Hall
Please follow these instructions very carefully. You may note that since the answer sheets are to be evaluated on machine, any violation of these instructions may result in reduction of your score for which you would yourself be responsible. Before you mark your responses on the Answer Sheet, you will have to fill in various particulars in it.
As soon as the candidate receives the Answer Sheet, he should check that it is numbered at the bottom. If it is found un-numbered he should at once get it replaced by a numbered one.
You will see from the Answer Sheet that you will have to fill in the top line, which reads thus:
|कद्र||िवषय िवषय कोड||अनक्रमांकु|
|Centre||Subject S. Code||Roll Number|
If you are, say, appearing for the examination in Delhi Centre for the Mathematics Paper* and your Roll No. is 081276, and your test booklet series is ‘A’ you should fill in thus, using black ball pen.
|Centre Delhi||Subject English||S.Code||0||1||Roll Number|
You should write with black ball pen the name of the centre and subject in English or Hindi
The test Booklet Series is indicated by Alphabets A, B, C or D at the top right hand corner of the Booklet.
Write your Roll Numbers exactly as it is in your e-Admission Certificate with Black ball pen in the boxes provided for this purpose. Do not omit any zero(s) which may be there.
The next step is to find out the appropriate subject code from the Time Table. Now encode the Test Booklet Series, Subject Code and the Roll Number in the circles provided for this purpose. Do the encoding with Black Ball pen. The name of the Centre need not be encoded.
Writing and encoding of Test Booklet Series is to be done after receiving the Test Booklet and confirming the Booklet Series from the same. For Mathematics *subject paper of ‘A’ Test Booklet Series you have to encode the subject code, which is 01. Do it thus:
पिु तका क्रम (ए)
Booklet Series (A)
िवषय 0 1
Subject 0 0
All that is required is to blacken completely the circle marked ‘A’ below the Booklet Series and below the subject code blacken completely the Circles for “0” (in the first vertical column) and “1” (in the second vertical column). You should then encode the Roll No.081276. Do it thus similarly:
Important : Please ensure that you have carefully encoded your subject. Test Booklet series and Roll Number:
*This is just illustrative and may not be relevant to your Examination.
Guidelines with regard to Physical Standards for Candidates for Combined Defence Services Examination.
Note-I : CANDIDATES MUST BE PHYSICALLY FIT ACCORDING TO THE PRESCRIBED PHYSICAL STANDARDS. THE STANDARDS OF MEDICAL FITNESS AND THE GUIDELINES FOR THE SAME ARE GIVEN BELOW :
A NUMBER OF QUALIFIED CANDIDATES ARE REJECTED SUBSEQUENTLY ON MEDICAL GROUNDS. CANDIDATES ARE, THEREFORE, ADVISED IN THEIR OWN INTEREST TO GET THEMSELVES MEDICALLY EXAMINED BEFORE SUBMITTING THEIR APPLICATIONS TO AVOID DISAPPOINTMENT AT THE FINAL STAGE.
Note-II: Permanent body tattoos are only permitted on inner face of forearm i.e from inside of elbow to the wrist and on the reverse side of palm/back (dorsal) side of hand. Permanent body tattoos on any other part of the body are not acceptable and candidates will be barred from further selection. Tribes with tattoo marks on the face or body as per their existing custom and traditions will be permitted on a case to case basis.
- A candidate recommended by the Services Selection Board will undergo a medical examination by a Board of Service Medical Officers. Women candidates will undergo Medical Examination by a Medical Board comprising male/female doctors/specialists/Gynaecologist. There will be a Lady Medical Officer as Member of Board. Only those candidates will be admitted to the Academy who are declared fit by the Medical Board. However, the candidates declared unfit will be intimated by the President of the Medical Board and procedure for request for an Appeal Medical Board (AMB) will also be intimated to the candidate.
Candidates who are unfit may apply for Appeal Medical Board (AMB) to be completed within 42 days of SMB and may request for Review Medical Board (RMB) within one day of completion of Appeal Medical Board. Candidates declared unfit by AMB will be intimated by the President AMB about procedure of challenging the findings of AMB. The candidates will also be intimated that holding Review Medical
Board (RMB) will be granted at the discretion of DGAFMS based on the merit of the case and that RMB is not a matter of right. The candidate should address the request for RMB if he/she so desires to DG Rtg. (CDSE) Army HQ., West Block-III, R.K. Puram, New Delhi-110066 and DMS(MB)/DGMS (Air), Air HQ, R.K. Puram in case of AF candidates and a copy of the same is handed over to the President of AMB. The O/o the DGAFMS will inform the date and place (Delhi and Pune only) where the candidate will appear for a RMB. The candidate must be physically fit according to the prescribed physical standards which are summarized below:
- The candidate must be in good physical and mental health and free from any disease/disability which is likely to interfere with the efficient performance of duties.
- There should be no evidence of weak constitution, bodily defects or over weight.
- The minimum acceptable height for male condidates is 157.5 cms. (157 cms for Navy and 162.5 cms for Air Force). For Women candidates minimum acceptable height is 152 cms. For Gorkhas and individuals belonging to hills of North-Eastern region of India, Garhwali and Kumaon, the Minimum acceptable height will be 5 cms less. In case of candidates from Lakshadweep,
the minimum acceptable height can be reduced by 2 cms.
These concessions are not applicable for Air Force Height and Weght standards are given below for Army and Navy only. Interpolation for weights against height not mentioned may be done.
|Height and Weight Standards (Males)|
|Height in||Weight in Kgs.|
*45 for Navy
@ 47 for Navy
A ± 10% (for Navy) departure from the average weight given in the Table above is to be considered within normal limit. However, in individuals with heavy bones and
broad built as well as individuals with thin built but otherwise healthy this may be relaxed to some extent on merit.
Height and Weight Standards (Females)
|Height in||Weight in Kgs.|
The acceptable weight for Air Force candidates will be ± 10% of the average weight given below:—
MALE IDEAL WEIGHTS IN KG FOR DIFFERENT AGE GROUPS AND HEIGHTS FOR FAT % (<20) OF NORMAL INDIVIDUALS
|FOR AIR FORCE|
|Ht. in||Age Range|
|mm||15-17 18-22 23-27 28-32||33-37 38-42 43-47 >48|
- In your own interest you are advised to undergo a preliminary medical check up for wax in ears, refractory error of eyes, fungal infection of skin etc. before reporting for the SSB interview.
- All candidates who are selected will be undergoing tough military training and will be deployed to perform military duties in any terrain, weather and austere conditions. In such conditions ill health of any member of the team can jeopardize the military operations or endanger life of the entire team, therefore medical examinations are carried to select candidates who are “Medically fit to perform military duties in any terrain, weather and austere conditions” candidate should be :-
- Medically capable of undergoing training and withstand physical and mental demands of performing Military duties of Armed Forces.
- Medically fit to adapt to the military environment without the necessity of geographical area limitations and capable of performing military tasks without access to specialized medical care.
- Free of medical conditions or physical defects that would entail excessive loss of time from duty for treatment and hospitalization.
- Free of contagious diseases that might endanger the health of other personnel.
- All candidates will be examined by Board of Medical Officers who have undergone basic military training and are well oriented to working conditions of military deployment and working conditions. Medical Boards are held at designated Military Hospitals based on the principles described above and latest knowledge in the medical and military sciences. The entire body is examined thoroughly to the extent feasible to screen out common congenital deformities and other easily detectable disabilities. The medical examination is not intended to be diagnostic in nature, hence only limited investigations are carried out for the purpose of screening wherever indicated. The standards for
medical fitness indicated herein are only an outline, and are intended only for general guidance of candidates. The Board of Medical Officers refers to the more comprehensive Medical Standards for recruitment/Commission into the Armed forces as Applicable.
- The following investigations are carried out mandatorily during Special Medical Board, however, Medical Officer/Medical Board examining a candidate may ask for any other investigation as required or indicated :-
- Complete Haemogram
- Urine RE/ME
- X Ray chest PA view
- USG abdomen & pelvis
- The following are usual of causes for rejection, the list is not exhaustive and Medical Board is the final authority on fitness.
- Sinus, fistulae and hernia, cyst, hyper/hypo pigmented patches, swelling, naevus, vascular malformations scars anywhere on the body.
- Head and neck : Muscolo-skeletal deformities which can interfere in using safety gear, cervical rib.
- Chest. Musculoskeletal deformities viz pectus excavatum, pigeon chest, rickety rosary, pleural effusion, parenchymal lesions of lungs, active or residual lesions of tuberculosis.
- Abdomen and reproductive system : Hernia, organomegaly, vascular deformities. Renal deformities, gall stones, renal tones etc. Deformities of reproductive system.
- Upper limbs, lower limbs and spine : Hyper flexible or restricted movements of joints, Cubitus valgus, Cubitus varus, genu recurvatum, deformities of hands and feet, kyphosis, scoliosis, congenital deformities, like spina bifida etc.
- Skin : Vitiligo, scars, vascular malformations chronic skin diseases.
- Eyes and Vision standards :
- Should have :-
- Objective Convergence. It should be ≤ 10 cm.
|(ab)||Accommodation. It should be ≤ 12 cm|
|(ac)||Binocular Single Vision (BSV). It should be at least grade-|
|(ad)||Visual Fields. Should be complete.|
|Vision||Uncorrected VA 6/60 & 6/60|
|BCVA 6/6 & 6/6|
|Myopia ≤ -3.50 D Sph including|
|astigmatism, Hypermetropia ≤ +3.50 D Sph|
- The following ocular diseases will make an candidate unfit :
- Vision Correction. Radial Keratotomy is not acceptable. Laser Surgery for correction of visual defects should not have been done earlier than 20 years of age on the date of operation, and also within one year period of reporting for medical examination.
- Ears and Hearing standards :
- Causes for rejection :-
- Auricle and Mastoide Region. The pinna will be assessed for gross deformity which will hamper wearing of uniform/personal kit/protective equipment, or which adversely impacts military bearing.
|(ab)||External Auditory Meatus. Presence of wax, foreign body,|
|exostosis, growth, otomycosis or discharge.|
tympanosclerotic plaques or retraction of membrane. And immobile or partially mobile tympanic membrane.
- Hearing Stds. Candidate should be able to hear forced whispering and conversational voice from 610 cms in each ear separately standing with his back to examiner.
- Medical Examination of Female Candidates. General methods and principles of medical examination of female candidates will be the same as for male candidates. However, special points pertaining to medical examination of female candidates are given in succeeding paragraphs. A detailed menstrual and gynecological history in the form of a questionnaire is to be obtained from the candidate. A detailed physical and systemic examination
will be carried out of the candidate and she should be examined by a lady Medical Officer or a lady Gynecologist only.
- The examination will include the following inspections
- External genitalia.
(ab) Hernial orifices and the perineum.
(ac) Any evidence of stress urinary incontinence or genital
prolapse outside introitus.
- All married candidates will be subjected to speculum examination for any prolapsed or growth on cervix or vagina. In all unmarried female candidates, speculum or per vaginal examination will not be carried out.
- Ultrasound scan of the lower abdomen and pelvis is mandatory in all female candidates during the initial medical examination.
- Any abnormality of external genitalia will be considered on merits of each case. Significant hirsutism, especially with male pattern of hair growth along with radiological evidence of PCOS will be a cause for rejection.
(ab) Following conditions will entail female candidates being declared unfit.
(aaa) Primary or secondary amenorrhoea
(aab) Severe Menorrhagia or/and severe dysmenorrhoea
(aac) Stress urinary incontinence
(aad) Congenital elongation of cervix or prolapsed which comes outside the introitus even after corrective surgery. (aae) Complex ovarian cyst of any size.
(aaf) Simple Ovarian cyst more than 06 cm.
(aag) Endometriosis and Adenomyosis.
(aah) Submucous fibroid of any size.
(aaj) Broad ligament or cervical fibroid of any size
causing pressure over ureter.
(aak) Single fibroid uterus >3 cm in diameter or Fibroids >2 in number, >15 mm in diameter or fibroids causing distortion of endometrial cavity.
(aal) Congenital uterine anomalies except arcuate uterus
(aam) Acute or chronic pelvic infection
(aan) Disorders of sexual differentiation
(aao) Any other condition will be considered on merits of each case by the gynaecologist
- Pregnancy. Pregnancy would be a cause of temporary rejection. The individual would be advised to report again to the hospital 24 weeks after an uncomplicated vaginal delivery. In case of an MTP/abortion the review will be carried out after a period of minimum four weeks and upto 12 weeks. However, in case of caesarean section delivery, the candidate would remain unfit for a period of 52 weeks. The individual would then be examined by the
Gynecologist and assessed regarding her fitness. In cases wherein, a time period of more than six months has elapsed, post her initial medical examination, she would be subjected to repeat complete medical examination as per the existing regulations.
- In addition to the above, the following medical standards will be applicable in respect of Air Force candidates only:
- Anthropometric measurements acceptable for Air Force are as follows :
Height 162.5 cms.
Leg Length Min. 99 cms. & Max. 120 cms.
Thigh Length Max. 64 cms.
Sitting Height Min. 81.5 cms. & Max. 96 cms.
- X-ray of Chest is compulsory.
- Visual Standards for Air Force :
Candidates who habitually wear spectacles are not eligible for Air Force. Minimum distant vision 6/6 in one eye and 6/9 in other correctable to 6/6 only for
Hypermetropia Colour vision CP-1
|Hypermetropia||:||+2.0 d Sph|
|Retinoscopic Myopia :||–0.5 in any meridian|
|Astigmatism||:||+0.75 D Cyl (with + 2.0 D-|
|Maddox Rod Test||Max)|
- at 6 meters— Exo-6 prism D Eso-6 prism D Hyper-1 prism D Hypo-1prism D
- at 33 cms— Exo-16 prism D Eso-6 prism D Hyper-1 prism D
- Refractive Surgery : Candidates who have undergone PRK (Photo Refractive Keratotomy/Lasik (LASER in Situ Keratomileusis) may be considered fit for commissioning in the Air Force in all branches.
- Post PRK/LASIK candidates must meet the visual requirements required for the branch as laid down in para 220.127.116.11.
- The following criteria must be satisfied prior to selecting post-PRK/LASIK at the time of Air Force Medical Examination :-
- PRK/LASIK surgery should not have been carried out before the age of 20 years.
(ab) The axial length of the eye should not be more than 25.5 mm as measured by IOL master.
(ac) At least 12 months should have elapsed post uncomplicated stable PRK/LASIK with no history or evidence of any complication.
(ad) The post PRK/LASIK corneal thickness as measured by a corneal pachymeter should not be less than 450 microns.
(ae) Individual with high refractive errors (>6D) prior to PRK/LASIK are to be excluded.
(af) Radial keratotomy (RK) and Photo Refractive Keratotomy (PRK) surgery for correction of refractive errors is not permitted for any Air Force duties. Candidates having undergone cataract surgery with or without IOL implants will also be declared unfit.
Binocular Vision—Must possess good binocular vision (fusion and stereopsis with good amplitude and depth).
Candidates who have undergone LASIK surgery are not considered fit for permanent commission in flying branch in IAF.
- Hearing Standards :
- Speech test : Whispered hearing 610 cms. each ear.
- Audiometric Test : Audiometric loss should not exceed +20 db in frequencies between 250 Hz and 8000 Hz.
- Routine ECG should be within normal limits.
- The following conditions detected on X-ray examination will be disqualifying for entry to Army and Navy:
- Granulomatous disease of spine.
- Scoliosis more than 10º degree as measured by Cobb’s Method.
- More than mild Kyphosis/Lordosis.
- Herniated nucleus pulposes.
- Compression fracture of Vertebra.
- Sacralisation Disease.
- Cervical ribs with demonstrable neurological or Circulatory deficit.
- Presence of Schmorl’s node at more than one level.
- Atlanto-occipital and atlanto-axial anomalies.
- Incomplete Sacralisation Unilateral or Bilateral.
- Spinabifida other than SV 1 and LV 5.
- Any other abnormality, if so considered by specialist.
Spinal Conditions for Air Force
Past medical history of diseases or injury of the spine or sacriliac joints, either with or without objective signs which have prevented the candidate from successfully following a physically active life, is a case for rejection for commissioning in IAF. History of spinal fracture/prolapsed intervertebral disc and surgical treatment for these conditions will entail rejection. The following conditions detected during medical exam will disqualify a candidate for Air Force service.
- Granulomatous disease of spine
- Rheumatoid arthritis and allied disorders
- Ankylosing spondylitis
- Osteoarthrosis, spondylosis and degenerative joint diseases
- Non articular rheumatism (e.g. lesions of the rotator cuff, tennis elbow, recurrent lumbago etc.)
- Miscellaneous disorders including SLE, dermatomyositis, polymyositis, vasculitis.
- Compression fracture of vertebrae
- Scheurman’s disease (Adolescent kyphosis)
- Loss of cervical lordosis when associated with clinically restricted movements of cervical spine.
- Unilateral/bilateral cervical ribs with demonstrable neurological or circulatroy deficit.
- Scoliosis more than 15 degree as measured by Cobb’s method.
- Degenerative Disc Disease.
- Presence of schmorl’s nodes at more than one level.
- Atlanto—occipital and atlanto-axial anomalies.
- Hemi vertebrae and/or incomplete block (fused) vertebrae at any level in cervical, dorsal or lumbar spine and complete block (fused) vertebrae at more than one level in cervical or dorsal spine.
- Unilateral Sacralisation or lumbarisation (Complete or incomplete) at all levels and bilateral incomplete sacralisation or lumbarisation.
- Any other abnormality if so considered by the specialist.
- The Medical standards for candidates of Naval Aviation Branch will be the same as for flying duties of Air Force except limit of myopia in the worst eye is -0.75D and limit of hypermetropia in both eye is +1.5D
- Detection of any disability in the course of a special test carried out prescribed for one service, may render the candidate unfit for any other service(s), if so considered as disqualifying by Medical Board.
- Physical Conditioning : Prospective candidates are advised to keep themselves in good physical condition by following the under mentioned routine :—
|(a)||Running||:||2 to 4 Km. in 15 minutes|
|(c)||Pushups & Sit-ups :||Minimum 20 each|
|(d)||Chin ups||:||Minimum 08|
|(e)||Rope Climbing :||3 to 4 metres.|
(Brief particulars of service etc.)
Pay scale of Army Officers and equivalent ranks in Air Force and Navy
|Rank||Level||(Pay in Rs.)|
|Lieutenant||Level 10||56,100 – 1,77,500|
|Captain||Level 10 B||6,13,00-1,93,900|
|Major||Level 11||6,94,00 – 2,07,200|
|Lieutenant Colonel||Level 12A||1,21,200 – 2,12400|
|Colonel||Level 13||1,30,600-2, 15,900|
|Major General||Level 14||1,44,200-2,18,200|
|Lieutenant General HAG Scale||Level 15||1, 82, 200-2,24,100|
|HAG+Scale||Level 16||2,05,400 – 2,24,400|
|VCOAS/Army Cdr/ Lieutenant General (NFSG)||Level 17||2,25,000/-(fixed)|
|MSP to the officer is as follows:-|
|Military Service Pay(MSP) to the officers from the rank of||Rs 15.500 p.m. fixed|
|Lieutenant to Brigadier|
|Fixed Stipend for cadet Training:-|
|Stipend to Gentlemen or Lady Cadets||during the||Rs 56,100/-p.m.*|
|entire duration of training in Service academies i.e.|
|during training period at IMA and OTA.|
- On successful commissioning, the pay in the Pay matrix of the Officer commissioned shall be fixed in first Cell of Level 10 and the period of training shall not be treated as commissioned service and arrears on account of admissible allowances, as applicable, for the training period shall be paid to cadets.
- QUALIFICATION PAY AND GRANT
- Qualification Grant
Final order on the issue is yet to be issued by the Govt Hence the information will be provided after receipt of Govt order on the issue.
- Qualification Pay :-
Pertaining to Indian Air Force
- Flying allowance :-
The Army Aviators (Pilots) serving in the Army Aviation Corps are entitled to flying allowing as under :-
|Lieutenant and above||Level 10 and above||Rs 25,000/- p.m. fixed|
|(a)||Dearnes Allowance||Admissible at the same rates and under the same|
|condition as are applicable to the civilian personnel|
|from time to time|
|(b)||Kit maintenance allce||Subsumed into the newly proposed Dress Allowance|
|i.e Rs 20,000/-per year|
Depending upon rank and area of posting, officer posted to Field Areas will be eligible for the following Field Area allces :-
|Rank||Level||HAFA||Fd Area||Mod Fd|
|Lieutenant||Level 10 and above||16900||10500||6300|
- High Altitude Allowance
|Lieutenant||and||Level 10 and above||3400||5300||25000|
- Siachen Allowance
Siachen Allowance will be Rs. 42,500/- per month.
- Uniform allowance.
Subsumed into the newly proposed Dress Allowance i.e. Rs. 20,000/- per
|(vii)||Transport Allce (TPTA).|
|Pay Level||Higher TPTA Cities||Other Places|
|(Rs. Per month)||(Rs. Per month)|
|9 and above||Rs. 7200+DA thereon||Rs. 3600+DA thereon|
|(a)||Higher Tpt Cities (UA). Hyderabad, Patna, Delhi, Ahmadabad, Surat,|
|Indore, Greater Mumbai, Nagpur, Pune, Jaipur,|
|Bengaluru, Kochi, Kozhikode,|
|Chennai, Coimbatore, Ghaziabad, Kanpur, Lucknow, Kolkata.|
|(b)||The allowance shall not be admissible to those service personnel who|
|have been provided with the facility of Government transport.|
|(c)||Officers in Pay Level 14 and above, who are entitled to use official car,|
|will have the option to avail official car facility or to draw the TPTA at the rate|
|of Rs. 15,750+DA per month.|
|(d)||The allowance will not be admissible for the calendar month(s) wholly|
|covered by leave.|
|(e)||Physically disabled service personnel will continue to be paid at double|
|rate, subject to a minimum of Rs. 2250 + DA.|
|(viii)||Children Education Allowance. Rs. 2250/-||per month per child for two|
|only CEA is admissible from Nursery to 12th Classes.|
|(i)||Reimbursement should be done just once a year, after completion of|
|the financial year (which for most schools coincides with the Academic year).|
- Certificate from the head of institution where the ward of government employee studies should be sufficient for this purpose. The certificate should confirm that the child studied in the school during the previous academic year.
In the case of allowances specific to Defence Forces, the rates of these allowances would be enhanced by 25% automatically each time the Dearness Allowance payable on the revised pay band goes up by 50% (GoI letter no. 1/(16)/2017/D(Pay/Services) dated 18 Sep 2017).
- State Govt. Of Sikkim has approved a cash incentive of Rs. 1.5 lac (Rupees one lakh fifty thousand only) to successful candidates of Sikkim for all officer’s entry scheme.
(A) FOR CANDIDATES JOINING THE INDIAN MILITARY ACADEMY, DEHRADUN:
- Before the candidate joins the Indian Military Academy.
- He will be required to sign a certificate to the effect that he fully understands that he or his legal heirs shall not be entitled to claim any compensation or other relief from the Government in respect of any injury which he may sustain. In the course of or as a result of the training or where bodily infirmity or death results in the course of or as a result of a surgical operation performed upon or anaesthesia administrated to him for the treatment of any injury received as aforesaid or otherwise.
- His parent or guardian will be required to sign a bond to the effect that if for any reason considered within his control, the candidate wishes to withdraw before the completion of the course or fails to accept a commission if offered; he will be liable to refund the whole or such portion of the cost of tuition, food, clothing and pay & allowances, received as may be decided upon by Government.
- Candidates finally selected will undergo a course of training for about 18 months. Candidates will be enrolled under the Army Act as Gentlemen cadets. Gentlemen cadets will be dealt with the ordinary disciplinary purposes under the rules and regulations of the Indian Military Academy, Dehradun.
- While, the cost of training including accommodations, books, uniforms, boarding and medical treatment will be borne by Government, candidates will be expected to meet their pocket expenses themselves. The minimum expenses at the Indian Military Academy are not likely to exceed Rs. 200.00 per month. If a cadet’s parent or guardian is unable to meet wholly or partly even this expenditure financial assistance may be granted by the Government. Gentlemen/Lady Cadets undergoing training at Indian Military Academy, Officers’ Training Academy and corresponding training establishments in Navy and Air Force, in whose cases the income of parents/guardians does not exceed Rs. 1,500/- (under revision) per month are eligible for financial assistance. In case of parents/guardians whose income exceeds Rs. 1,500/- (under revision) per month but does not exceed Rs. 2,000/- (under revision) per month, the same financial assistance will be given in respect of all the sons/wards if there are more than one son/ward simultaneously undergoing training in one or more than one of the above institutions irrespective of the fact whether the institutions are under the same service or not. The immovable property and other assets and income from all sources are also taken into account for determining the eligibility for financial assistance.
The parent/guardian of a candidate desirous of having any financial assistance, should, immediately after his son/ward has been finally selected for training at the Indian Military Academy, submit an application through the District Magistrate of his District who will with his recommendation forward the application to the Commandant, Indian Military Academy, Dehradun.
- Candidate finally selected for training at the Indian Military Academy will be required to deposit the following amount with the Commandant on arrival :
|(a)||Pocket allowance for five months||Rs. 1,000.00/-|
|@ Rs. 200.00 per month.|
|(b)||For item of clothing and equipment||Rs. 2,750.00/-|
Out of the amount mentioned above the following is refundable to the cadets in the event of financial assistance being sanctioned to them.
|Pocket allowance of five months||Rs. 1,000.00/-|
@ Rs. 200.00 per month.
- The following Scholarships are tenable at the Indian Military Academy :
- PARSHURAM BHAU PATWARDAN SCHOLARSHIP—This scholarship is awarded to cadets from MAHARASHTRA AND KARNATAKA. The value of one scholarship is upto a maximum of Rs. 500.00 per annum for the duration of a cadet’s stay at the Indian Military Academy subject to the cadet’s making satisfactory progress. The cadets who are granted this scholarship will not be entitled to any other financial assistance from the Government.
- COLONEL KENDAL FRANK MEMORIAL SCHOLARSHIP—This scholarship is of the value of Rs. 360.00 per annum and is awarded to an eligible Maratha cadet who should be a son of ex-serviceman. The Scholarship is in addition to any financial assistance from the Government.
- An outfit allowance at the rate and under the general conditions applicable at the time for each cadet belonging to the Indian Military Academy will be placed at disposal of the Commandant of the Academy. The unexpended portion of the allowance will be :—
- handed over to the cadet on his being granted a commission or
- if he is not granted a commission refunded to the State.
On being granted a commission article of clothing and necessaries purchased from the allowance shall become the personal property of the cadet. Such articles will, however be withdrawn from a cadet who resigns while under training or who is removed or withdrawn prior to commissioning. The article withdrawn will be disposed of to the best advantage of the State.
- No candidate will normally be permitted to resign whilst under training. However, Gentlemen Cadet resigning after the commencement of training may be allowed to proceed home pending acceptance of their resignation by Army HQ. Cost of training, messing and allied services, will be recovered from them before their departure. They and their parents/guardians will be required to execute a bond to this effect before the candidates are allowed to join Indian Military Academy. A Gentlemen Cadet who is not considered suitable to complete the full course of training may with permission of the Government, be discharged. Service candidates under these circumstances will be reverted back to their parent Unit.
- Commission will be granted only on successful completion of training. The date of commission will be that following the date of successful completion of training. Commission will be permanent.
- Pay and allowances, pensions, leave and other conditions of service after the grant of commission will be identified with those applicable from time to time to regular officers of the army.
- Training : At the Indian Military Academy Army Cadets, known as Gentlemen Cadets, are given strenuous Military training for a period of 18 months aimed at turning out, officers capable of leading infantry subunits. On successful completion
of training Gentlemen Cadets are granted Permanent Commission in the rank of Lt.
subject to being medically fit, in S.H.A.P.E.
- Insurance: The Gentlemen/Lady Cadets of IMA/OTA when in receipt of stipend are insured for Rs. 75 lac w.e.f. 01 October, 2016. Those who get medically boarded out of the Academy on account of disability, the disability cover provided for 100 per cent disability will be Rs. 25 lac which is proportionately reduced upto Rs. 5 lac for 20 per cent disability. However, on less than 20 per cent, disability, no disability benefit is eligible but an Ex-Gratia grant of Rs. 50,000/- will be paid. Disability due to alcoholism, drug addiction and due to diseases of pre-enrolment origin will not qualify for disability benefit and Ex-Gratia Grant. In addition, Gentlemen/Lady Cadets withdrawn on disciplinary grounds or as undesirable or voluntarily leaves the Academy will also not be eligible for disability benefits and Ex-Gratia Grant. Subscription at the rate of Rs.. 5,000/- will have to be paid in advance on monthly basis by the Gentleman/Lady Cadets who are in receipt of stipend and will become members of the main Army Group Insurance Scheme as applicable to Regular Army Officers.
- Terms and Conditions of Service
Army officers are liable to serve anywhere in India and abroad.
The following are the service limits for the grant of the substantive promotion to higher ranks.
By time scale :
Lt. (On completion of training)
Capt. 2 years of reckonable commissioned service
Major 6 years of reckonable commissioned service
Lt. Col. 13 years of reckonable commissioned service
Col (TS) 26 years of reckonable commissioned service
“The Qualifying service for consideration for promotion by Selection is as under”
Col. 15 years of reckonable commissioned service Brigadier 23 years of reckonable commissioned service
Lt. Gen. 28 years of reckonable commissioned service General No restrictions
- FOR CANDIDATES JOINING THE INDIAN NAVAL ACADEMY, EZHIMALA, KERALA
- Candidates selected for training at the Indian Naval Academy will be appointed as Cadets under the Graduate Cadet Special Entry Scheme (GSES) Course. The Selection of the cadets is based on the candidate qualifying in the Combined Defence Service Examination (CDSE), followed by SSB interview and Medical Examination. Meritorious candidates who are medically fit are appointed to the 45 vacancies in the order of merit. Six of these 45 vacancies are reserved for Naval NCC “C’ Certificate holding candidates under the NCC Special Entry Scheme.
- Selection of Cadets from the National Cadet Corps. The eligibility, age-limits, educational qualifications for candidates applying under the NCC Special Entry Scheme are the same as the GSES candidates except for the following:-
- A NCC Cadet must have served for not less than two academic years in the Senior Division, Naval Wing of the National Cadet Corps, and must be in possession of Certificate”C” (Naval). Those who have appeared or intend to appear for certificate “C” examination are also eligible to apply but their final selection shall depend on producing the Certificate before the commencement of the course.
- The NCC Cadet must be in possession of a certificate of good conduct and character from his University or Principal of his College.
- A NCC Cadet shall not be eligible to apply after twelve months of leaving the
- In order to apply, a cadet must submit his application to his Officer Commanding, N.C.C Unit, Naval Wing, who shall forward it through the Circle Commander concerned to the N.C.C. Directorate, Ministry of Defence, New Delhi. The N.C.C. Directorate will forward the applications to the Chief of the Naval Staff. The applications shall be submitted on the prescribed form. These forms will be available at all N.C.C. Units.
- Candidates who are considered prima facie suitable shall be required to appear before a Service Selection Board for interview and other tests.
- Candidates to be finally selected should at least secure the minimum qualifying marks at the Services Selection Board. Subject to this condition and to their being declared medically fit, successful candidates shall be placed in the order of merit based on the total marks secured in the written examination and the Service Selection Board interview. The final selection shall be made in the order of merit up to the number of vacancies available.
(iii) Candidates, finally selected for training at the Academy will be appointed as cadets in the Executive Branch of the Navy. A sum of Rs. 35,000/- should be brought by them and deposited in the bank account, which they would be opening at the State Bank of India, Ezhimala branch, on arrival. Since it is a
large amount, it is advised that they carry a demand draft payable to self. The deposit money would be used to meet the following expenditures:—
|(a)||Pocket/Personal expenses||Rs. 5,000/-|
|@ Rs. 1,000/- per month|
|(b)||Expenses on Laundry, Civilian-||Rs. 4,250/-|
|bearer, Cinema, hair cutting and||@ Rs. 850/-|
|other sundry services per month|
|(c)||Expenses on stitching/purchase of||Rs.20,000/-|
|Academy Blazer, Academy tie, Aca-|
|demy Mufti, Academy Sportswear,|
|Jogging shoes, Jungle boots, Swim-|
|ming Trunk/suits and Satchels.|
|(d)||Travelling expenses for proceeding||Rs. 2,000/-|
|to next duty station/home station|
|on leave on completion of Naval|
- Insurance : A sum of Rs. 780/- non-refundable premium for a cover of Rs. 8 Lakhs is required to be paid by the candidate on reporting to the Naval Academy during the six months of training. An additional premium of Rs. 780/- would be payable for each relegated term.
- Training: Selected candidates may be appointed as cadets on reporting at the Indian Naval Academy.
The candidates shall remain under probation till completion of initial training which is as follows:-
|(a)||Naval Orientation Course at||44 weeks|
|(b)||Officers Sea Training at Training Ship||06 months|
|(c)||Sub-Lieutenant Afloat training||06 months|
|(d)||Sub-Lieutenant (Technical course)||32 weeks|
|Afloat attachment for award of|
|e) Full Naval watch-keeping Certificate||06-09 months|
- Commissioning & Other Benefits The cadets shall be commissioned in the rank of Sub-Lieutenant after successful completion of approximately 18 months of training. The careers prospects, leave benefits, leave and travel concession, pensionary/retirements benefits and all such perks and privileges provided to officers in the Navy is similar to those being provided by the two services.
(vi) The cost of training including accommodation and allied services, books, uniform, messing and medical treatment of the cadets of the Indian Naval Academy will be borne by the Government. Parents or guardians of cadets will, however, be required to meet their pocket and other private expenses while they are cadets. When a cadet’s parent or guardian has an income less than Rs. 1500 per mensem and is unable to meet wholly or partly the pocket expenses of the cadet financial assistance upto Rs. 140 per mensem may be granted by the Government. A candidate desirous of securing financial assistance may immediately after his selection, submit an application through the District Magistrate of his District, who will with his recommendations, forward the application to the Principal Director of Manpower Planning & Recruitment, Naval Headquarters, New Delhi-110011.
Note : Further information, if desired, may be obtained from the Directorate of Manpower, Planning & Recruitment, Naval Headquarters, New Delhi-110011.
- FOR CANDIDATES JOINING THE AIR FORCE ACADEMY
- There are three modes of entry in F(P) Course viz. CDSE/NCC/Airmen. Candidates who apply for Air Force through more than one source will be tested/interviewed at Air Force Selection Boards only once for Air Force as well as other arms of services. Common candidate who fail in Computer Pilot Selection System (CPSS) and/or Pilot Aptitude Battery Test as an NCC or Airmen candidate will be called again for OLQ testing for Army/Navy/OTA only, if it is found that he has applied through CDS Exam., also.
- Detailing for Training—Candidates recommended by the AFSBs and found medically fit by appropriate medical establishment are detailed for training strictly on the basis of merit and availability of vacancies. Separate merit list are prepared for Direct Entry candidates through UPSC and for NCC candidates. The merit list for Direct Entry Flying (Pilot) candidates is based on the combined marks secured by the candidates in the tests conducted by the UPSC and at the Air Force Selection Boards. The merit list for NCC candidates is prepared on the basis of marks secured by them at AFSBs.
- Training—The approximate duration of training for Flying Branch (Pilots) at the Air Force Academy will be 74 weeks.
Insurance cover during Flying Training—(Rates are under revision).
Air Force Group Insurance Society would pay Rs. 1,00,000/- for a monthly contribution of Rs. 800/- pm as ex-gratia award to the next-of-kin of a flight cadet drawn from Civil life and undergoing flying training in an unfortunate eventuality. In case, flight cadet undergoing flying training is medically invalidated boarded out, he would be paid Rs. 20,000/- as ex-gratia award for 100% disability and this reduces proportionately upto 20%.
Cadets are authorised fixed stipend amounting to Rs. 21,000/- per month (Rs. 15,600/- pay in the pay band and Rs. 5,400/-as grade pay) during training. “On successful completion of training the stipend admitted will be converted as pay for all purposes. However, the period of training shall not be treated as commissioned service.”
Once flight cadets are granted pay and allowances by government, the death cover would be Rs. 50,000/- and the disability cover would be Rs. 25,000/- for 100% disability. This cover would be provided by AFGIS on payment of monthly non-refundable contribution of Rs. 76/- by each flight cadet undergoing flying training for which membership would be compulsory. Conditions governing Financial Assistance :
- While the cost of training including accommodations, books, uniforms, boarding and medical treatment will be borne by Government, candidates will be expected to meet their pocket expenses themselves. The minimum expenses at the Air Force Academy are not likely to exceed Rs. 14,000/- (under revision) per mensem. If a cadet’s parent or guardian is unable to meet wholly/partly even this expenditure, financial assistance may be granted by the Government. No cadet whose parent or guardian has an income of Rs. 750/- or above per month would be eligible for the grant of the financial assistance. The immovable property and other assets and income from all sources are also taken into account for determining the eligibility for financial assistance. The parent/guardian of a candidate desirous of having any financial assistance, should immediately, after his son/ward has been finally selected for training at the Air Force Academy, submit an application through the District Magistrate of his district who will, with his recommendations, forward the application to the Commandant, Pre Flying Training Courses, Begumpet.
- Candidates finally selected for training at the Air Force Academy will be required to deposit the following amount (under revision) with the Commandant on
|(a) Pocket allowance for six months||Rs.840/-|
|@ Rs. 140/- per month|
|(b) For item of clothing and equipment||Rs.1,500/-|
Out of the amount mentioned above the following amount is refundable to the cadets in the event of financial assistance being sanctioned.
|Pocket allowance for the six months|
|@ Rs. 140/- per month—||Rs. 840/-|
- Career Prospects :
After successful completion of training, the candidates pass out in the rank of
Flying Officer and will be entitled to the pay and allowances of the rank. Time scale promotions to the rank of Flight Lieutenant, Squadron Leader, Wing Commander and Group Captain are granted on completion of 2 years, 6 years, 13 years and 26 years of successful service respectively. Grant of Group Captain (select) and higher
ranks is only by selections. Promising officers have a fair chance of getting higher promotions to air ranks—Air Commodore, Air Vice Marshal and Air Marshal.
- Leave and Leave Travel Concession : Annual Leave—60 days a year.
Casual Leave—20 days a year.
Officers are authorised encashment of Annual Leave upto 10 days alongwith LTC to the extent of a total 60 days in a career span to cover incidental expenses on travel.
Officers when proceeding on annual/casual leave, irrespective of its duration, is entitled for free conveyance from place of duty (unit) to home town and back once in the second year of his service for the first time and thereafter every alternate year to any place in India in lieu of home town or selected place of residence without any distance restriction.
In addition officers of Flying branch employed on regular Flying Duties in vacancies in authorised establishment are allowed, while proceeding on leave once every year on warrant a free rail journey in the appropriate class upto a total distance of 1600 kms. for the forward and return journeys both inclusive.
Officers when travelling on leave at their own expenses are entitled to travel by entitled class or lower class on payment of 60 per cent of the fare for self, wife and children from unit to any place within India on 6 one-way journey Form ‘D’ in a calender year. Two of these Form ‘D’ may be availed of for the entire family. In addition to wife and children family includes parents, sisters and minor brothers residing with and wholly dependent upon the officers.
- Other Privileges :
The officers and their families are entitled to free medical aid, accommodation on
concessional rent, group insurance scheme, group housing scheme, family assistance scheme, canteen facilities etc.
- FOR CANDIDATES JOINING THE OFFICERS TRAINING ACADEMY, CHENNAI
- Before the candidate join the Officers Training Academy Chennai.
- He/she will be required to sign a certificate to the effect that he/she fully understands that he/she or his/her legal heirs shall not be entitled to claim any compensation or other relief from the Government in respect of any injury which he/she may sustain in the course of or as a result of the training or where bodily infirmity or death results in the course of or as a result of a surgical operation performed upon or anaesthesia administered to him/her for the treatment of any injury received as aforesaid or otherwise.
- His/her parent or guardian will be required to sign a bond to the effect that if for any reason considered within his/her control, the candidate wishes to withdraw before the completion of the course or fails to accept a commission if offered or marries while under training at the Officers’ Training Academy, he/she will be liable to refund the whole or such portion of the cost of tuition, food, clothing and pay & allowances, received as may be decided upon by
- Candidates finally selected will undergo a course of training at the Officers’ Training Academy, for an approximate period of 49 weeks. Candidates will be enrolled as Gentlemen/Lady Cadets. Gentlemen/Lady Cadets will be dealt with the ordinary disciplinary purposes under the rules and regulations of the Officers’ Training Academy.
- While, the cost of training including accommodations, books, uniforms, boarding and medical treatment will be borne by the government, candidates will be expected to meet their pocket expenses themselves.
The minimum expenses during the pre commission training are not likely to exceed Rs. 200/- per month but if the cadets pursue, any hobbies such as photography, shikar, hiking etc. they may require additional money. In case however, the cadet is unable to meet wholly or partly even the minimum expenditure, financial assistance at rates which are subject to change from time to time, may be given provided the cadet and his/her parent/guardian, have an income below Rs. 1500 per month. A candidate desirous of having financial assistance should immediately after being finally selected for training submit an application on the prescribed form through the District Magistrate of his/her district who will forward the application to the Commandant, Officers’ Training Academy, Chennai alongwith his/her Verification report.
- Candidates finally selected for training, at the Officers’ Training Academy, will be required to deposit the following amount with the Commandant on arrival :
(a) Pocket allowance for three month Rs. 3,000/-
- 1,000 per month
|(b) For items of clothing and||Rs. 5,000/-|
|(c) Group Insurance Coverage||Rs. 2,000/-|
|for 02 months (AGIF)|
Out of the amount mentioned above the amount mentioned in (b) above is refundable to the Cadets in the event of financial assistance being sanctioned to them.
- Outfit allowance will be admissible under order as may be issued from time to time. On being granted a commission, articles of clothing and necessaries purchased from this allowance shall become the personal property of the cadet. Such articles, will however be withdrawn from a cadet who resigns while under training or who is removed or withdrawn prior to commissioning. The article withdrawn will be disposed of to the best advantage of the State.
- No candidate will normally be permitted to resign whilst under training. However, Gentlemen/Lady Cadets resigning after the commencement of training may be allowed to proceed home pending acceptance of their resignation by Army HQ. Cost of training, messing and allied services will be recovered from them before their departure. They and their parents/guardians will be required to execute a bond to this effect before the candidates are allowed to join Officers’ Training Academy.
- On joining OTA, candidates will not be permitted to appear for any examination/interview, for any other type of commission/entry in the Army, Navy and Air Force or any other employment without resigning from the Academy and paying the cost of training. However, no cost of training including messing charges will be recovered from these Gentlemen Cadets, who may resign from the Officers Training Academy, Chennai to undergo pre-commission training at the Indian Military Academy, Dehradun or corresponding cadet training establishment in Navy and Air Force, if so selected.
- A Gentleman/Lady Cadet who is not considered suitable to complete the full course of training may, with permission of Government, be discharged after paying
cost of training laid down by the Government of India.An Army candidate under these circumstances will be reverted to his Regiment or Corps.
- Training :
Selected candidates will be enrolled as Gentleman/Lady Cadets and will undergo a course of training at the Officers’ Academy for an approximate period of 49 Weeks. On successful completion of training Gentleman/Lady Cadets are granted Short Service Commission in the rank of Lt. From the date of successful completion of training. University of Madras will award “Post Graduate Diploma in Defence Management and Strategic Studies” to all cadets who successfully complete Pre-commissioning training at Officers Training Academy, Chennai.
- Terms and conditions of Services :
- Period of probation:
An officer will be on probation for a period of 6 months from the date he/she receives his/her commission. If he/she is reported on within the probationary period as unsuitable to retain his/her commission, he/she may be terminated any time whether before or after the expiry of the probationary period. Candidates withdrawn from Officers’ Training Academy on disciplinary grounds are not eligible to apply.
Personnel granted Short Service Commission is liable to serve anywhere in India and abroad on selected appointments as decided by IHQ MOD (Army) from time to time.
(c) Tenure of Appointment:
Short Service Commission Officers (Male and Female) in the regular Army will be granted for 14 years i.e. for an initial period of 10 years extendable by a further period of 04 years. Male officers who are willing to continue to serve in the Army after the expiry of period of ten years Short Service Commission may, if eligible and suitable in all respects, be considered for the grant of permanent Commission in the 10th year of their Short Service Commission in accordance with the relevant rules.
Those SSC officers who are not selected for grant of PC but are otherwise considered fit and suitable, will be given options to continue as SSCOs for a total period of 14 years (including the initial tenure of 10 years) on expiry of which they will be released from the Army”. Women officers are not eligible for permanent commission. However, they can opt for extension of upto 14 years of service. (d) Special Provision for Release for SSC on completion of 5th Year of Service:
SSC (Non-Tech) Male & Female Officers, other than those who undergone or are undergoing Degree Engineering Course or any other specialized course of such nature, who are desirous of leaving the service after completion of five years service may, during the fifth year of service, apply to the Army HQs. for release. Army HQ will consider the applications of such officers on merits and the decision of the Army HQ will be final and irrevocable. On approval of such officers will be released from service on completion of 5th year of service. Those SSC (Non-Tech) Male & Female Officers who have undergone or are undergoing Degree Engineering Course or any other specialised course of such nature, will not be released before expiry of full tenure of 14 years unless the cost of training of such specialized course as prescribed is recovered from them. The Combat Aviation Course which is mandatory for Aviators is specialized course for Short Service Commissioned Officers. They will be required to execute a bond to this effect on being nominated for undertaking Degree Engineering Course/Special Course of such nature.
(e) Special Provisions during Extended Tenure:
During extended tenure, they will be permitted to seek release from the Army on the following grounds:—
- Taking up civil Job.
- Pursuing higher education.
- Starting own business/joining family business.
- Substantive Promotion :
SSCOs male and female granted Short Service Commission under these rules will be eligible for substantive promotion as under:—
|(i)||To the rank||on completion of 2 years|
|of Capt.||reckonable commissioned service|
|(ii) To the rank of||on completion of 6 years|
|Major||reckonable commissioned service.|
|(iii)||To the rank of||on completion of 13 years|
|Lt. Col.||reckonable commissioned service.|
(g) Mandatory Conditions:
Mandatory conditions for grant of above substantive ranks laid down for Permanent Commissioned officers as well as the eligibility, time limit and penalties for promotions exam Part B and D as applicable to permanent commission officers also be similarly applicable to SSCOs male and female.
- h) Adjustment of Seniority:
To make adjustment for shorter training of SSC male and female vis-a vis PC officers, the seniority of SSC male and female officers will be depressed by the period corresponding to the difference in training period between the SSC course under consideration and the the training period of its equivalent PC Course. This adjustment of serniority will be carried out at the time of grant of first substantive rank of captain. The revised seniority will have no effect on the pay and allowances granted in the rank of CApt. Major and Lt.Col.
(i) Reckonable Commissioned Service:
Subject to provision of Para 10 (h) above, reckonable commissioned service for the purpose of these orders will count from the date of grant of Short Service Commission to an officer. The period of service forfeited by sentence of Court Martial or any summary award under the Army Act and the period of absence without leave will not be reckonable. The period during which furlough rates of pay are drawn and the period of captivity at POWs rates of pay, will be reckonable. The period of service for promotion lost by an officer in consequence of his/her having been granted leave without pay will also be reckonable. Such an officer will, however, become entitiled to the pay and allowances of the higher substantive rank granted by the inclusion of this period only from the date on which he/she would have qualified by service if this period had not been so reckoned and not with effect from the date of grant of substantive rank.
- Leave: Leave will be admissible in accordance with the Leave Rules for the Service Vol. 1-Army as amended from time to time.
For leave, officers will be governed by rules aplicable to short Service Copmmission officers as given in Chapter IV of the Leave Rules for the Service Vol.I-Army. They will also be entitled to leave on passing out of the Officers Training Academy and before assumption of duties under the provision of the Rule 69 ibid. SSC women Officers will also be eligible for Maternity Leave as per SAL 1/S/92-S.
(k) Termination of Commission
The Commission of an officer may be terminated at any time by the Government of India for the following reasons:-
- For misconduct or if services are found to be unsatisfactory: or
- on account of medical unfitness; or
- if his/her services are no longer required or
- if he/she fails to qualify in any prescribed test or course.
An officer may on giving 3 months notice be permitted to resign his/her commission on compassionate grounds of which the Government of India will be the sole judge. An officer who is permitted to resign his/her commission on compassionate grounds will not be eligible for terminal gratuity.
(l) Terminal Gratuity:
SSCO recruited from civil side are entitled to terminal gratuity @ 1/2 months emoluments for each completed six monthly period of service.
(m) Reserve Liability:
On being released on the expiry of five/ten years Short Service Commission or extension thereof (as the case may be) they will carry a reserve liability for a period of five years or upto the age of 40 years in case of Male Officers and 37 years in case of Female Officers which is earlier.
All other terms and conditions of service where not at variance with the above provisions will be the same as for regular officers.