NDA 2 2017 Final Results, Question Paper, Syllabus, Fees, Exam Dates, Eligibility, Exam Pattern National Defence Academy & Naval Academy Exam 2 2017
NDA 2 2017 Final Results, Question Paper, Syllabus, Fees, Exam Dates, Eligibility, Exam Pattern National Defence Academy & Naval Academy Exam 2 2017
|e – Admit Card||14/08/2017|
|Question Paper||General Ability Test, Mathematics||25/09/2017|
National Defence Academy & Naval Academy Examination (II), 2017
|Date of Notification||07/06/2017|
|Date of Commencement of Examination||10/09/2017|
|Duration of Examination||One Day|
|Last Date for Receipt of Applications||30/06/2017 – 6:00pm|
|Date of Upload||07/06/2017|
EXAMINATION NOTICE NO.10/2017-NDA-II DATED 07.06.2017
(Last Date for Submission of Applications: 30.06.2017)
NATIONAL DEFENCE ACADEMY & NAVAL ACADEMY EXAMINATION (II), 2017 (Commission’s Website upsc.gov.in)
- CANDIDATES TO ENSURE THEIR ELIGIBILITY FOR THE EXAMINATION:
The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfil all the eligibility conditions for admission to the Examination. Their admission at all the stages of the examination will be purely provisional subject to satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions.
Mere issue of Admission Certificate to the candidate will not imply that his candidature has been finally cleared by the Commission.
Verification of eligibility conditions with reference to original documents is taken up only after the candidate has qualified for interview/Personality Test.
- HOW TO APPLY
Candidates are required to apply online by using the website upsconline.nic.in Brief instructions for filling up the online Application Form have been given in the Appendix-II. Detailed instructions are available on the above mentioned website.
- LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATIONS:
The Online Applications can be filled upto 30th June, 2017 till 6.00 PM.
- The eligible candidates shall be issued an e-Admit Card three weeks before the commencement of the examination. The e-Admit Card will be made available on the UPSC website (gov.in) for being downloaded by candidates. No Admit Card will be sent by post. All the applicants are required to provide valid & active e-mail id while filling up online application form as the Commission may use electronic mode for contacting them.
- PENALITY FOR WRONG ANSWERS:
Candidates should note that there will be penalty (Negative Marking) for wrong answers marked by a candidate in the Objective Type Question Papers.
- For both writing and marking answers in the OMR sheet (Answer Sheet) candidates must use black ball pen only Pens with any other colour are prohibited. Do not use Pencil or Ink pen. Candidates should note that any omission/mistake/discrepancy in encoding/filling of details in the OMR answer sheet especially with regard to Roll Number and Test Booklet Series Code will render the answer sheet liable for rejection. Candidates are further advised to read carefully the “Special Instructions” contained in Appendix-III of the Notice.
- FACILITATION COUNTER FOR GUIDANCE OF CANDIDATES:
In case of any guidances/information/clarification regarding their application, candidature etc. candidates can contact UPSC’s Facilitation Counter near Gate ‘C’ of its campus in person or over Telephone No.011-23385271/011-23381125/011-23098543 on working days between 10.00 hrs. to 17.00 hrs.
- MOBILE PHONES BANNED:
- Mobiles phones, pagers/bluetooth or any other communication devices are not allowed inside the premises where the examination is being conducted. Any infringement of these instructions shall entail disciplinary action including ban from future examinations.
- Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the banned items including mobile phones/pagers/bluetooth or any valuable/costly items to the venue of the examination as arrangements for safe keeping cannot be assured. Commission will not be responsible for any loss in this regard.
CANDIDATES ARE REQUIRED TO APPLY ONLINE AT upsconline.nic.in ONLY.
NO OTHER MODE IS ALLOWED FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATION.
F.No.7/1/2017.E.1(B): An Examination will be conducted by the Union Public Service Commission on 10th September, 2017 for admission to the Army, Navy and Air Force wings of the NDA for the 140th Course, and for the 102nd Indian Naval Academy Course (INAC) commencing from 2nd July, 2018.
The date of holding the examination as mentioned above is liable to be changed at the discretion of the Commission.
The approximate number of vacancies to be filled on the results of this examination will be as under :—
|National Defence Academy||:||335 (208 for Army, 55 for Navy|
|and 72 for Air Force)|
|(10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme)|
Vacancies are provisional and may be changed depending on the availability of training capacity of National Defence Academy and Indian Naval Academy.
N.B. (i) A candidate is required to specify clearly in the Online Application Form the Services for which he wishes to be considered in the order of his preference [1 to 4]. He is also advised to indicate as many preferences as he wishes to opt so that having regard to his rank in the order of merit due consideration can be given to his preferences when making appointments.
- Candidates should note that they will be considered for appointment to those services only for which they express their preferences and for no other service(s). No request for addition/alteration in the preferences already indicated by a candidate in his application will be entertained by the Commission.
- Admission to the above courses will be made on the results of the written examination to be conducted by the Commission followed by intelligence and personality test by the Services Selection Board of candidates who qualify in the written examination.
- CENTRES OF EXAMINATION:
The Examination will be held at the following Centres :
Agartala, Ahmedabad, Aizawl, Allahabad, Bengaluru, Bareilly, Bhopal, Chandigarh, Chennai, Cuttack, Dehradun, Delhi, Dharwad, Dispur, Gangtok, Hyderabad, Imphal, Itanagar, Jaipur, Jammu, Jorhat, Kochi, Kohima, Kolkata, Lucknow, Madurai, Mumbai, Nagpur, Panaji (Goa), Patna, Port Blair, Raipur, Ranchi, Sambalpur, Shillong, Shimla, Srinagar, Thiruvananthapuram, Tirupati, Udaipur and Vishakhapatnam.
Applicants should note that there will be a ceiling on the number of candidates allotted to each of the centres except Chennai, Dispur, Kolkata and Nagpur. Allotment of Centres will be on the first-apply-first-allot basis and once the capacity of a particular centre is attained, the same will be frozen. Applicants, who cannot get a centre of their choice due to ceiling, will be required to choose a Centre from the remaining ones. Applicants are, thus, advised that they may apply early so that they could get a Centre of their choice.
N.B. : Notwithstanding the aforesaid provision, Commission reserves the right to change the Centres at their discretion if the situation demands.
Candidates admitted to the examination will be informed of the time table and place or places of examination. Candidates should note that no request for change of centre will be granted.
- CONDITIONS OF ELIGIBILITY :
(a) Nationality : A candidate must either be :
- a citizen of India, or
- a subject of Bhutan, or
- a subject of Nepal, or
- a Tibetan refugee who came over to India before the 1st January, 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India, or
- a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka and East African Countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire and Ethiopia or Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India.
Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India.
Certificate of eligibility will not, however, be necessary in the case of candidates who are Gorkha subjects of Nepal.
(b) Age Limits, Sex and Marital Status :
Only unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 02nd January, 1999 and not later than 1st January, 2002 are eligible.
The date of birth accepted by the Commission is that entered in the Matriculation or Secondary School Leaving Certificate or in a certificate recognised by an Indian University as equivalent to Matriculation or in an extract from a Register of Matriculates maintained by a University which must be certified by the proper authority of the University or in the Higher Secondary or an equivalent examination certificates. These certificates are required to be submitted only after the declaration of the result of the written part of the examination. No other document relating to age like horoscopes, affidavits, birth extracts from Municipal Corporation, service records and the like will be accepted. The expression Matriculation/Higher Secondary Examination Certificate in this part of the instruction includes the alternative certificates mentioned above.
NOTE 1 : Candidates should note that only the date of birth as recorded in the Matriculation/Higher Secondary Examination Certificate available or an equivalent certificate on the date of submission of applications will be accepted by the Commission and no subsequent request for its change will be considered or granted.
NOTE 2 : Candidates should also note that once a date of birth has been claimed by them and entered in the records of the Commission for the purpose of admission to an Examination, no change will be allowed subsequently or at any subsequent examination on any ground whatsoever.
NOTE 3 : The candidates should exercise due care while entering their date of birth in the respective column of the Online Application Form for the Examination. If on verification at any subsequent stage any variation is found in their date of birth from the one entered in their Matriculation or equivalent Examination certificate, disciplinary action will be taken against them by the Commission under the Rules.
NOTE 4 : Candidates must undertake not to marry until they complete their full training. A candidate who marries subsequent to the date of his application though successful at this or any subsequent Examination will not be selected for training. A candidate who marries during training shall be discharged and will be liable to refund all expenditure incurred on him by the Government.
(c) Educational Qualifications:
- For Army Wing of National Defence Academy :—12th Class pass of the 10+2 pattern of School Education or equivalent examination conducted by a State Education Board or a University.
- For Air Force and Naval Wings of National Defence Academy and for the 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme at the Indian Naval Academy :—12th Class pass of the 10+2 pattern of School Education or equivalent with Physics and Mathematics conducted by a State Education Board or a University.
Candidates who are appearing in the 12th Class under the 10+2 pattern of School Education or equivalent examination can also apply for this examination.
Such candidates who qualify the SSB interview but could not produce Matriculation/10+2 or equivalent certificate in original at the time of SSB interview should forward duly self attested Photocopies to ‘Directorate General of Recruiting, Army HQ, West Block.III, R.K. Puram, New Delhi-110066’ and for Naval Academy candidates to ‘Naval Headquarters, DMPR, OI&R Section, Room No. 204, ‘C’ Wing, Sena Bhavan, New Delhi-110011’ by 24th June, 2018 failing which their candidature will be cancelled. All other candidates who have produced their Matriculation and 10+2 pass or equivalent certificates in original at the time of attending the SSB interview and have got the same verified by the SSB authorities are not required to submit the same to Army HQ or Naval HQ as the case may be. Certificates in original issued by the Principals of the Institutions are also acceptable in cases where Boards/Universities have not yet issued certificates. Certified true copies/photostate copies of such certificates will not be accepted.
In exceptional cases the Commission may treat a candidate, who does not possess any of the qualifications prescribed in this rule as educationally qualified provided that he possesses qualifications, the standard of which in the opinion of the Commission, justifies his admission to the examination.
NOTE 1 : Candidates appearing in the 11th class exam are not eligible for this examination.
NOTE 2 : Those candidates who have yet to qualify in the 12th class or equivalent examination and are allowed to appear in the UPSC Examination should note that this is only a special concession given to them. They are required to submit proof of passing the 12th class or equivalent examination by the prescribed date (i.e. 24th June, 2018) and no request for extending this date will be entertained on the grounds of late conduct of Board/University Examination, delay in declaration of results or any other ground whatsoever.
NOTE 3 : Candidates who are debarred by the Ministry of Defence from holding any type of Commission in the Defence Services shall not be eligible for admission to the examination and if admitted, their candidature will be cancelled.
NOTE 4 : Those candidates who have failed INSB/PABT earlier are not eligible for Air Force.
(d) Physical Standards:
Candidates must be physically fit according to physical standards for admission to National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination (II), 2017 as per guidelines given in Appendix-IV.
(e) A candidate who has resigned or withdrawn on disciplinary grounds from any of the training academies of Armed Forces is not eligible to apply.
Candidates (excepting SC/ST candidates/Sons of JCOs/NCOs/ORs specified in Note 2 below who are exempted from payment of fee) are required to pay a fee of Rs. 100/- (Rupees one hundred only) either by depositing the money in any Branch of SBI by cash, or by using net banking facility of State Bank of India/State Bank of Bikaner & Jaipur/State Bank of Hyderabad/State Bank of Mysore/State Bank of Patiala/State Bank of Travancore or by using Visa/MasterCard/Rupay Credit/Debit Card.
N.B. 1 : Applicants who opt for “Pay by Cash” mode, should print the system generated Pay-in-slip during Part-II registration and deposit the fee at the counter of SBI Branch on the next working day only. “Pay by Cash” mode option will be deactivated at 23.59 hours of 29.06.2017 i.e. one day before the closing date; however, applicants who have generated their Pay-in-slip before it is de-activated may pay at the counter of SBI Branch during banking hours on the closing date. Such applicants who are unable to pay by cash on the closing date i.e. during banking hours at SBI Branch, for reason whatsoever, even if holding a valid Pay-in-Slip, will have no other offline option but to opt for online Debit/Credit Card or Internet Banking Payment
mode on the closing date i.e. till 6.00 P.M. of 30.06.2017.
N.B. 2 : Candidates should note that payment of examination fee can be made only through the modes prescribed above. Payment of fee through any other mode is neither valid nor acceptable. Applications submitted without the prescribed fee/mode (unless remission of fee is claimed) shall be summarily rejected.
N.B. 3 : Fee once paid shall not be refunded under any circumstances nor can the fee be held in reserve for any other examination or selection.
N.B. 4 : For the applicants in whose case payments details have not been received from the bank, they will be treated as fictitious payment cases and their applications will be rejected in the first instance. A list of all such applicants shall be made available on the Commission’s website within two weeks after the last day of submission of online application. The applicants shall be required to submit the proof of their fee payment within 10 days from the date of such communication either by hand or by speed post to the Commission. On receipt of documentary proof, genuine fee payment cases will be considered and their applications will be revived, if they are otherwise eligible.
NOTE-1 : Candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes and those specified in Note 2 below are not required to pay any fee. No fee exemption is, however, available to OBC candidates and they are required to pay the full prescribed fee.
NOTE-2 : The sons of serving/ex-Junior Commissioned Officers/Non-Commissioned Officers/Other Ranks of Army and equivalent ranks in the Indian Navy/Indian Air Force are also not required to pay the prescribed fee if they are studying in Military School (formerly known as King George’s School)/Sainik School run by Sainik Schools Society.
[N.B. : A certificate of eligibility for fee exemption is required to be obtained by all such candidates from the Principals concerned individually and produced for verification at the time of SSB Test/Interview by the candidates who are declared qualified for the SSB Test/Interview.]
- HOW TO APPLY:
Candidates are required to apply Online by using the website upsconline.nic.in Detailed instructions for filling up online applications are available on the above-mentioned website.
NOTE-1 : The applicants are advised to submit only single application; however if due to any unavoidable situation, if he submits another/multiple applications, then he must ensure that application with the higher RID is complete in all respects like applicants’ details, examination centre, photograph, signature, fee etc. The applicants who are submitting multiple applications should note that only the applications with higher RID (Registration ID) shall be entertained by the Commission and fee paid against one RID shall not be adjusted against any other RID.
NOTE-2 : All candidates whether already in Government Service including candidates serving in the Armed Forces, Sailors (including boys and artificers apprentices) of the Indian Navy, Cadets of Rashtriya Indian Military College (previously known as Sainik School, Dehradun), Students of Military Schools (formerly known as King George’s Schools) and Sainik Schools run by Sainik Schools Society, Government owned industrial undertakings or other similar organizations or in private employment should apply online direct to the Commission.
N.B. (a) Persons already in Government Service, whether in permanent or temporary capacity or as work charged employees other than casual or daily rated employees or those serving under the Public Enterprises; (b) Candidates serving in the Armed Forces, Sailors (including boys and artificers apprentices) of the Indian Navy; and (c) Cadets of Rashtriya Indian Military College (previously known as Sainik School, Dehra Dun), Students of Military Schools formerly known as King George’s Schools and Sainik Schools run by Sainik Schools Society are required to inform their Head of Office/Department, Commanding Officer, Principals of College/School concerned, as the case may be, in writing that they have applied for this examination. Candidates should note that in case a communication is received by the Commission from their employer/authority concerned withholding permission to the candidates applying for/appearing at the examination, their applications will be liable to be rejected/candidatures will be liable to be cancelled.
NOTE-3 : WHILE FILLING IN THE APPLICATION FORM, THE
CANDIDATE SHOULD CAREFULLY DECIDE ABOUT HIS CHOICE FOR
THE CENTRE FOR THE EXAMINATION.
IF ANY CANDIDATE APPEARS AT A CENTRE OTHER THAN
THE ONE INDICATED BY THE COMMISSION IN HIS E-ADMISSION
CERTIFICATE, THE PAPERS OF SUCH A CANDIDATE WILL NOT BE
VALUED AND HIS CANDIDATURE WILL BE LIABLE TO
NOTE-4 : APPLICATIONS WITHOUT THE PRESCRIBED FEE
(UNLESS REMISSION OF FEE IS CLAIMED AS IN PARA 4 ABOVE) OR
INCOMPLETE APPLICATIONS SHALL BE SUMMARILY REJECTED. NO
REPRESENTATION OR CORRESPONDENCE REGARDING SUCH
REJECTION SHALL BE ENTERTAINED UNDER ANY CIRCUMSTANCES.
CANDIDATES ARE NOT REQUIRED TO SUBMIT ALONG WITH THEIR
APPLICATIONS ANY CERTIFICATE IN SUPPORT OF THEIR CLAIMS
REGARDING AGE, EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATIONS, SCHEDULED
CASTES/SCHEDULED TRIBES/OTHER BACKWARD CLASSES AND FEE
REMISSION ETC. THEY SHOULD THEREFORE, ENSURE THAT THEY
FULFIL ALL THE ELIGIBILITY CONDITIONS FOR ADMISSION TO THE
EXAMINATION. THEIR ADMISSION TO THE EXAMINATION WILL
ALSO THEREFORE BE PURELY PROVISIONAL. IF ON VERIFICATION AT
ANY LATER DATE IT IS FOUND THAT THEY DO NOT FULFIL ALL
ELIGIBILITY CONDITIONS, THEIR CANDIDATURE WILL BE
CANCELLED. THE RESULT OF THE WRITTEN PART OF THE
EXAMINATION IS LIKELY TO BE DECLARED IN THE MONTH OF DECEMBER, 2017. “Successful Candidates would be allotted Selection Centres and dates of SSB interviews which shall be communicated on the email ID as filled by the candidate in their UPSC online application.”
NOTE 5: CANDIDATES WHO HAVE PASSED WRITTEN TEST ARE
NOT REQUIRED TO SUBMIT THEIR ORIGINAL CERTIFICATE OF AGE
AND EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION EITHER TO DIRECTORATE
GENERAL OF RECRUITING, ARMY HQ, WEST BLOCK-III, RK PURAM, NEW DELHI-110066 OR TO NAVAL HEADQUARTERS, DMPR, OI&R SECTION, ‘C’ WING, SENA BHAWAN, NEW DELHI-110011.
ALL CANDIDATES CALLED FOR INTERVIEW MUST CARRY
THEIR ORIGINAL MATRICULATION CERTIFICATE OR EQUIVALENT
EXAMINATION CERTIFICATE TO THE SERVICES SELECTION BOARD
(SSB). ORIGINALS WILL HAVE TO BE PRODUCED BY THE CANDIDATES
WHO QUALIFY AT THE SSB INTERVIEW SOON AFTER THE INTERVIEW.
THE ORIGINALS WILL BE RETURNED AFTER VERIFICATION. THOSE
CANDIDATES WHO HAVE ALREADY PASSED 10+2 EXAMINATION
MUST CARRY THEIR ORIGINAL 10+2 PASS CERTIFICATE OR MARKS
SHEET FOR THE SSB INTERVIEW. IF ANY OF THEIR CLAIMS IS FOUND
TO BE INCORRECT THEY MAY RENDER THEMSELVES LIABLE TO
DISCIPLINARY ACTION BY THE COMMISSION IN TERMS OF THE
A candidate who is or has been declared by the Commission to be guilty of :
(i) obtaining support for his candidature by any
- impersonating, or
- procuring impersonation by any person, or
- submitting fabricated documents or documents which have been tampered with, or
- making statements which are incorrect or false or suppressing material information, or
- resorting to any other irregular or improper means in connection with his candidature for the examination, or
- using unfair means during the examination, or
- writing irrelevant matter, including obscene language or pornographic matter, in the script(s), or
- misbehaving in any other manner in the examination hall, or
- harassing or doing bodily harm to the Staff employed by the Commission for the conduct of their examination, or
- being in possession of or using mobile phone, pager bluetooth or any electronic equipment or device or any other equipment capable of being used as a communication device during the examination, or
- violating any of the instructions issued to candidates alongwith their Admission Certificates permitting them to take the examination, or
- attempting to commit or as the case may be abetting the Commission of all or any of the acts specified in the foregoing clauses, may in addition to rendering himself liable to criminal prosecution be liable
- to be disqualified by the Commission from the examination for which he is a candidate and/or
- to be debarred either permanently or for a specified
- by the Commission from any examination or selection held by them;
- by the Central Government from any employment under them and;
- if he is already in service under Government to disciplinary action under the appropriate rules.
Provided that no penalty under this rule shall be imposed except after :
- giving the candidate an opportunity of making such representation, in writing as he may wish to make in that behalf; and
- taking the representation, if any, submitted by the candidate within the period allowed to him into consideration.
- LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATIONS:
The Online Applications can be filled upto 30th June, 2017 till 6.00 PM.
- TRAVELLING ALLOWANCE:
Candidates appearing for SSB interview for the first time for a particular type of Commission i.e. Permanent or Short Service, shall be entitled for AC III Tier to and fro railway fare or bus fare including reservation cum sleeper charges within the Indian limits. Candidates who apply again for the same type of Commission will not be entitled to travelling allowance on any subsequent occasion.
- CORRESPONDENCE WITH THE COMMISSION / ARMY / NAVAL /
The Commission will not enter into any correspondence with the candidates about their candidature except in the following cases :
(i) The eligible candidates shall be issued an e-Admit Card three weeks before the commencement of the examination. The e-Admit Card will be
made available in the UPSC website [upsc.gov.in] for being downloaded by candidates. No Admit Card will be sent by post. For downloading the e-Admit Card the candidate must have his vital parameters like RID & Date of Birth or Roll No. (if received) & date of birth or name, father’s name & Date of Birth available with him.
(ii) If a candidate does not receive his e-Admit Card or any other communication regarding his candidature for the examination one week before the commencement of the examination, he should at once contact the Commission. Information in this regard can also be obtained from the Facilitation Counter located in the Commission’s Office either in person or over Phone Nos. 011–23385271/011–23381125/011–23098543 Extn 4119, 4120. In case no communication is received in the Commission’s Office from the candidate regarding non-receipt of his e-Admit Card at least one week before the examination, he himself will be solely responsible for non-receipt of his e-Admit Card.
(iii) No candidate will ordinarily be allowed to take the examination unless he holds a certificate of admission for the examination. On receipt of e-Admit Card, check it carefully and bring discrepancies/errors, if any, to the notice of the UPSC immediately. The courses to which the candidates are admitted will be according to their eligibility as per educational qualifications for different courses and the preferences given by the candidates.
The candidates should note that their admission to the examination will be purely provisional based on the information given by them in the Application Form. This will be subject to verification of all the eligibility conditions.
- The decision of the Commission as to the acceptance of the application of a candidate and his eligibility or otherwise for admission to the Examination shall be final.
- Candidates should note that the name in the e-Admit Card in some cases, may be abbreviated due to technical reasons.
- Candidates must ensure that their e.mail Ids given in their online applications are valid and active.
IMPORTANT : All Communications to the Commission should invariably contain the following particulars.
- Name and year of the examination.
- Registration ID (RID).
- Roll Number (if received).
- Name of candidate (in full and in block letters).
- Postal Address as given in the application.
N.B. (i) : Communications not containing the above particulars may not be attended to.
N.B. (ii) : If a letter/communication is received from a candidate after an examination has been held and it does not give his full name and roll number, it will be ignored and no action will be taken thereon. Candidates recommended by the Commission for interview by the Services Selection Board who have changed their addresses subsequent to the submission of their applications for the examination should immediately after announcement of the result of the written part of the examination notify the changed address also to :—
For candidates with Army as first choice—Army Headquarters, A.G’s Branch, RTG (NDA Entry), West Block-III, Wing-1, R. K. Puram, New Delhi-110066, Phone No. 26175473.
For candidates with Navy/Naval Academy as first choice— Naval Headquarters, Directorate of Manpower & Recruitment, OI&R Section, R. No. 204, ‘C’ Wing, Sena Bhawan,New Delhi-110011, Phone No. 23010097/23011282.
For candidates with Air Force as first choice—Air Headquarters, Directorate of Personnel (Officers), PO 3 (A), Room No. 17, ‘J’ Block, Opp. Vayu Bhawan, Motilal Nehru Marg, New Delhi-110106, Phone No. 23010231 Extn. 7973.
FAILURE TO COMPLY WITH THIS INSTRUCTION WILL DEPRIVE THE
CANDIDATE OF ANY CLAIM TO CONSIDERATION IN THE EVENT OF
HIS NOT RECEIVING THE SUMMONS LETTER FOR INTERVIEW BY THE
SERVICES SELECTION BOARD.
AFTER HAVING CLEARED THE WRITTEN EXAMINATION THE
CANDIDATES SHOULD LOG ON TO THE FOLLOWING WEBSITES FOR
THEIR SSB CENTRE & DATE OF INTERVIEW :-
Candidates whose names have been recommended for interview by the Services Selection Board should address enquiries or requests, if any, relating to their interview or visit website of respective service headquarters after 20 days from the announcement of written results as follows :—
For candidates with Army as first choice—Army Headquarters, AG’s Branch, RTG (NDA Entry), West Block-III, Wing-1, R.K. Puram, New Delhi – 110 066, Phone No. 26175473 or joinindianarmy.nic.in
For candidates with Navy/Naval Academy as first choice—Naval Headquarters, Directorate of Manpower & Recruitment, O.I. & R. Section, Room No. 204, ‘C’ Wing, Sena Bhavan, New Delhi-110011, Phone No. 23010097/Email : email@example.com or joinindiannavy.gov.in
For candidates with Air Force as first choice—Air Headquarters, Directorate of Personnel (Officers), PO 3 (A), Room No. 17, ‘J’ Block, Opp. Vayu Bhawan, Motilal Nehru Marg, New Delhi-110106, Phone No. 23010231 Extn. 7973/7646 or careerairforce.nic.in
Candidates are required to report for SSB interview on the date intimated to them in the call up letter for interview. Requests for postponing interview will only be considered in exceptional circumstances and that too if it is administratively convenient for which Army Headquarters will be the sole deciding authority. Such requests should be addressed to the Administrative Officer of the Selection Centre from where the call letter for interview has been received. No action will be taken on letters received by Army/Navy/Air HQs. SSB interview for the candidates qualified in the written examination will be held during the months of January, 2018 to April, 2018 or as suitable to Recruiting Directorate. For all queries regarding Merit list, joining instructions and any other relevant information regarding selection process, please visit our website joinindianarmy.nic.in.
- ANNOUNCEMENT OF THE RESULTS OF THE WRITTEN
EXAMINATION, INTERVIEW OF QUALIFIED CANDIDATES,
ANNOUNCEMENT OF FINAL RESULTS AND ADMISSION TO THE
TRAINING COURSES OF THE FINALLY QUALIFIED CANDIDATES:
The Union Public Service Commission shall prepare a list of candidates who obtain the minimum qualifying marks in the written examination as fixed by the Commission at their discretion. Such candidates shall appear before a Services Selection Board for Intelligence and Personality Test where candidates for the Army/Navy wings of the NDA and 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme of Indian Naval Academy will be assessed on Officers Potentiality and those for the Air Force in Computerised Pilot Selection System (CPSS) and Pilot Aptitude Test (which forms the whole PAB Test) and for Officers Potentiality. PABT applicable to candidates with Air Force as First choice would also be conducted for all SSB qualified candidates with one of the choice as Air Force subject to their eligibility and if they are so willing.
TWO-STAGE SELECTION PROCEDURE
Two-stage selection procedure based on Psychological Aptitude Test and Intelligence Test has been introduced at Selection Centres/Air Force Selection Boards/Naval Selection Boards. All the candidates will be put to stage-one test on first day of reporting at Selection Centres/Air Force Selection Boards/Naval Selection Boards. Only those candidates who qualify at stage one will be admitted to the second stage/remaining tests. Those candidates who qualify stage II will be required to submit the Original Certificates along with one photocopy each of : (i) Original Matriculation pass certificate or equivalent in support of date of birth, (ii) Original 10+2 pass certificate or equivalent in support of educational qualification.
Candidates who appear before the Services Selection Board and undergo the test there, will do so at their own risk and will not be entitled to claim any compensation or other relief from Government in respect of any injury which they may sustain in the course of or as a result of any of the tests given to them at the Services Selection Board whether due to the negligence of any person or otherwise. Parents or guardians of the candidates will be required to sign a certificate to this effect.
To be acceptable, candidates for the Army/Navy/Naval Academy and Air Force should secure the minimum qualifying marks separately in (i) Written examination as fixed by the Commission at their discretion and (ii) Officer Potentiality Test as fixed by the Services Selection Board at their discretion. Over and above candidates for the Air Force, and all the SSB qualified candidates as per their willingness, eligibility and preference for Air Force, should separately qualify the PABT.
Subject to these conditions the qualified candidates will then be placed in a single combined list on the basis of total marks secured by them in the Written Examination and the Services Selection Board Tests. The final allocation/selection for admission to the Army, Navy, Air Force of the National Defence Academy and 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme of Indian Naval Academy will be made upto the number of vacancies available subject to eligibility, medical fitness and merit-cum-preference of the candidates. The candidates who are eligible to be admitted to multiple Services/Courses will be considered for allocation/selection with reference to their order or preferences and in the event of their final allocation/ selection to one Service/Course, they will not be considered for admission to other remaining Services/Courses.
N.B.: EVERY CANDIDATE FOR THE AIR FORCE IS GIVEN
COMPUTERISED PILOT SELECTION SYSTEM (CPSS) AND PILOT
APTITUDE TEST (WHICH FORMS THE WHOLE PAB TEST) ONLY
ONCE. THE GRADE SECURED BY HIM AT THE FIRST TEST WILL
THEREFORE HOLD GOOD FOR EVERY SUBSEQUENT INTERVIEW HE
HAS WITH THE AIR FORCE SELECTION BOARD. A CANDIDATE
WHO FAILS IN THE FIRST PILOT APTITUDE TEST CANNOT APPLY
FOR ADMISSION TO THE NATIONAL DEFENCE ACADEMY
EXAMINATION FOR THE AIR FORCE WING OR GENERAL DUTIES
(PILOT) BRANCH OR NAVAL AIR ARM.
Candidates who have been given the Computerised Pilot Selection System (CPSS) and Pilot Aptitude Test (which forms the whole PAB Test) for any previous N.D.A. course should submit their application for this examination for the Air Force Wing only if they have been notified as having qualified in the Pilot Aptitude Test.
The form and manner of communication of the result of the examination to individual candidates shall be decided by the Commission at their discretion
and the Commission will not enter into correspondence with them regarding the result.
Success in the examination confers no right of admission to the Academy. A candidate must satisfy the appointing authority that he is suitable in all respects for admission to the Academy.
- DISQUALIFICATION FOR ADMISSION TO THE TRAINING
Candidates who were admitted to an earlier course at the National Defence Academy, or to the 10 + 2 Cadet Entry Scheme of Indian Naval Academy but were removed therefrom for lack of officer-like qualities or on disciplinary grounds will not be admitted to the Academy.
Candidates who were previously withdrawn from the National Defence Academy or Indian Naval Academy on medical grounds or left the above Academy voluntarily are however, eligible for admission to the Academy provided they satisfy the medical and other prescribed conditions.
- NO REQUEST FOR WITHDRAWAL OF CANDIDATURE
RECEIVED FROM A CANDIDATE AFTER HE HAS SUBMITTED HIS
APPLICATION WILL BE ENTERTAINED UNDER ANY
- The details regarding (a) the scheme and syllabus of the examination,
(b) guidelines for filling up the online Application Form (c) Special Instructions to candidates for objective type tests, (d) Physical standards for admission to the National Defence Academy and Naval Academy and (e) Brief particulars of the service etc., for candidates joining the National Defence Academy and Naval Academy are given in Appendices I, II, III, IV and V respectively.
Union Public Service Commission
(The Scheme and Syllabus of Examination)
- SCHEME OF EXAMINATION
- The subjects of the written examination, the time allowed and the maximum marks allotted to each subject will be as follows:—
|General Ability Test||02||2½ Hours||600|
|SSB Test/Interview :||900|
- THE PAPERS IN ALL THE SUBJECTS WILL CONSIST OF OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTIONS ONLY. THE QUESTION PAPERS (TEST BOOKLETS) OF
MATHEMATICS AND PART “B” OF GENERAL ABILITY TEST WILL BE
SET BILINGUALLY IN HINDI AS WELL AS ENGLISH.
- In the question papers, wherever necessary, questions involving the metric system of Weights and Measures only will be set.
- Candidates must write the papers in their own hand. In no circumstances will they be allowed the help of a scribe to write answers for them.
- The Commission have discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all the subjects at the examination.
- The candidates are not permitted to use calculator or Mathematical or logarithmic table for answering objective type papers (Test Booklets). They should not therefore, bring the same inside the Examination Hall.
- SYLLABUS OF THE EXAMINATION
(Code No. 01)
Concept of set, operations on sets, Venn diagrams. De Morgan laws, Cartesian product, relation, equivalence relation.
Representation of real numbers on a line. Complex numbers—basic properties, modulus, argument, cube roots of unity. Binary system of numbers. Conversion of a number in decimal system to binary system and vice-versa. Arithmetic, Geometric and Harmonic progressions. Quadratic
equations with real coefficients. Solution of linear inequations of two variables by graphs. Permutation and Combination. Binomial theorem and its applications. Logarithms and their applications.
- MATRICES AND DETERMINANTS :
Types of matrices, operations on matrices. Determinant of a matrix, basic properties of determinants. Adjoint and inverse of a square matrix, Applications-Solution of a system of linear equations in two or three unknowns by Cramer’s rule and by Matrix Method.
- TRIGONOMETRY :
Angles and their measures in degrees and in radians. Trigonometrical ratios. Trigonometric identities Sum and difference formulae. Multiple and Sub-multiple angles. Inverse trigonometric functions. Applications-Height and distance, properties of triangles.
- ANALYTICAL GEOMETRY OF TWO AND THREE DIMENSIONS:
Rectangular Cartesian Coordinate system. Distance formula. Equation of a line in various forms. Angle between two lines. Distance of a point from a line. Equation of a circle in standard and in general form. Standard forms of parabola, ellipse and hyperbola. Eccentricity and axis of a conic. Point in a three dimensional space, distance between two points. Direction Cosines and direction ratios. Equation two points. Direction Cosines and direction ratios. Equation of a plane and a line in various forms. Angle between two lines and angle between two planes. Equation of a sphere.
- DIFFERENTIAL CALCULUS :
Concept of a real valued function–domain, range and graph of a function. Composite functions, one to one, onto and inverse functions. Notion of limit, Standard limits—examples. Continuity of functions—examples, algebraic operations on continuous functions. Derivative of function at a point, geometrical and physical interpretation of a derivative—applications. Derivatives of sum, product and quotient of functions, derivative of a function with respect to another function, derivative of a composite function. Second order derivatives. Increasing and decreasing functions. Application of derivatives in problems of maxima and minima.
- INTEGRAL CALCULUS AND DIFFERENTIAL EQUATIONS :
Integration as inverse of differentiation, integration by substitution and by parts, standard integrals involving algebraic expressions, trigonometric, exponential and hyperbolic functions. Evaluation of definite integrals—determination of areas of plane regions bounded by curves— applications.
Definition of order and degree of a differential equation, formation of a differential equation by examples. General and particular solution of a differential equations, solution of first order and first degree differential equations of various types—examples. Application in problems of growth and decay.
- VECTOR ALGEBRA :
Vectors in two and three dimensions, magnitude and direction of a vector. Unit and null vectors, addition of vectors, scalar multiplication of a vector, scalar product or dot product of two vectors. Vector product or cross product of two vectors. Applications—work done by a force and moment of a force and in geometrical problems.
- STATISTICS AND PROBABILITY :
Statistics : Classification of data, Frequency distribution, cumulative frequency distribution—examples. Graphical representation—Histogram, Pie Chart, frequency polygon—examples. Measures of Central tendency—Mean, median and mode. Variance and standard deviation—determination and comparison. Correlation and regression.
Probability : Random experiment, outcomes and associated sample space, events, mutually exclusive and exhaustive events, impossible and certain events. Union and Intersection of events. Complementary, elementary and composite events. Definition of probability—classical and statistical— examples. Elementary theorems on probability—simple problems. Conditional probability, Bayes’ theorem—simple problems. Random variable as function on a sample space. Binomial distribution, examples of random experiments giving rise to Binominal distribution.
GENERAL ABILITY TEST
(Code No. 02)
Part ‘A’—ENGLISH (Maximum Marks—200)
The question paper in English will be designed to test the candidate’s understanding of English and workman like use of words. The syllabus covers various aspects like : Grammar and usage, vocabulary, comprehension and cohesion in extended text to test the candidate’s proficiency in English.
Part ‘B’—GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (Maximum Marks—400)
The question paper on General Knowledge will broadly cover the subjects : Physics, Chemistry, General Science, Social Studies, Geography and Current Events.
- The syllabus given below is designed to indicate the scope of these subjects included in this paper. The topics mentioned are not to be regarded as exhaustive and questions on topics of similar nature not specifically
mentioned in the syllabus may also be asked. Candidate’s answers are expected to show their knowledge and intelligent understanding of the subject.
Section ‘A’ (Physics)
Physical Properties and States of Matter, Mass, Weight, Volume, Density and Specific Gravity, Principle of Archimedes, Pressure Barometer.
Motion of objects, Velocity and Acceleration, Newton’s Laws of Motion, Force and Momentum, Parallelogram of Forces, Stability and Equilibrium of bodies, Gravitation, elementary ideas of work, Power and Energy. Effects of Heat, Measurement of Temperature and Heat, change of State and Latent Heat, Modes of transference of Heat. Sound waves and their properties, Simple musical instruments. Rectilinear propagation of Light, Reflection and refraction. Spherical mirrors and Lenses, Human Eye.
Natural and Artificial Magnets, Properties of a Magnet, Earth as a Magnet. Static and Current Electricity, conductors and Non-conductors,
Ohm’s Law, Simple Electrical Circuits, Heating, Lighting and Magnetic effects of Current, Measurement of Electrical Power, Primary and Secondary Cells, Use of X-Rays. General Principles in the working of the following:
Simple Pendulum, Simple Pulleys, Siphon, Levers, Balloon, Pumps, Hydrometer, Pressure Cooker, Thermos Flask, Gramophone, Telegraphs, Telephone, Periscope, Telescope, Microscope, Mariner’s Compass; Lightening Conductors, Safety Fuses.
Section ‘B’ (Chemistry)
Physical and Chemical changes. Elements, Mixtures and Compounds, Symbols, Formulae and simple Chemical Equations, Law of Chemical Combination (excluding problems). Properties of Air and Water.
Preparation and Properties of Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen and Carbondioxide, Oxidation and Reduction. Acids, bases and salts. Carbon— different forms. Fertilizers—Natural and Artificial. Material used in the preparation of substances like Soap, Glass, Ink, Paper, Cement, Paints, Safety Matches and Gun-Powder. Elementary ideas about the structure of Atom, Atomic Equivalent and Molecular Weights, Valency.
Section ‘C’ (General Science)
Difference between the living and non-living. Basis of Life—Cells, Protoplasms and Tissues. Growth and Reproduction in Plants and Animals. Elementary knowledge of Human Body and its important organs. Common Epidemics, their causes and prevention.
Food—Source of Energy for man. Constituents of food, Balanced Diet. The Solar System—Meteors and Comets, Eclipses. Achievements of Eminent Scientists.
Section ‘D’ (History, Freedom Movement etc.)
A broad survey of Indian History, with emphasis on Culture and Civilisation. Freedom Movement in India. Elementary study of Indian Constitution and Administration. Elementary knowledge of Five Year Plans of India. Panchayati Raj, Co-operatives and Community Development. Bhoodan, Sarvodaya, National Integration and Welfare State, Basic Teachings of Mahatma Gandhi.
Forces shaping the modern world; Renaissance, Exploration and Discovery; War of American Independence. French Revolution, Industrial Revolution and Russian Revolution. Impact of Science and Technology on Society. Concept of one World, United Nations, Panchsheel, Democracy, Socialism and Communism. Role of India in the present world.
Section ‘E’ (Geography)
The Earth, its shape and size. Lattitudes and Longitudes, Concept of time. International Date Line. Movements of Earth and their effects. Origin of Earth. Rocks and their classification; Weathering—Mechanical and Chemical, Earthquakes and Volcanoes. Ocean Currents and Tides Atmosphere and its composition; Temperature and Atmospheric Pressure, Planetary Winds, Cyclones and Anti-cyclones; Humidity; Condensation and Precipitation; Types of Climate, Major Natural regions of the World. Regional Geography of India—Climate, Natural vegetation. Mineral and Power resources; location and distribution of agricultural and Industrial activities. Important Sea ports and main sea, land and air routes of India. Main items of Imports and Exports of India.
Section ‘F’ (Current Events)
Knowledge of Important events that have happened in India in the recent years. Current important world events. Prominent personalities—both Indian and International including those connected with cultural activities and sports.
NOTE : Out of maximum marks assigned to part ‘B’ of this paper, questions on Sections ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’, ‘D’, ‘E’ and ‘F’ will carry approximately 25%, 15%, 10%, 20%, 20% and 10% weightages respectively.
Intelligence and Personality Test
The SSB procedure consists of two stage Selection process – stage I and stage II. Only those candidates who clear the stage I are permitted to appear for stage II. The details are :
- Stage I comprises of Officer Intelligence Rating (OIR) tests are Picture Perception * Description Test (PP&DT). The candidates will be shortlisted based on combination of performance in OIR Test and PP&DT.
(b) Stage II Comprises of Interview, Group Testing Officer Tasks, Psychology Tests and the Conference. These tests are conducted over 4 days. The details of these tests are given on the website joinindianarmy.nic.in.
The personality of a candidate is assessed by three different assessors viz. The Interviewing Officer (IO), Group Testing Officer (GTO) and the Psychologist. There are no separate weightage for each test. The mks are allotted by assessors only after taking into consideration the performance of the candidate holistically in all the test. In addition, marks for Conference are also allotted based on the initial performance of the Candidate in the three techniques and decision of the Board. All these have equal weightage.
The various tests of IO, GTO and Psych are designed to bring out the presence/absence of Officer Like Qualities and their trainability in a candidate. Accordingly candidates are Recommended or Not Recommended at the SSB.
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES FOR FILLING ONLINE
Candidates are required to apply online by using the website
Salient Features of the Online Applications Form are given hereunder:
- Detailed instructions for filling up Online Applications are available on the above mentioned website.
- Candidates will be required to complete the Online Application form containing two stages viz. Part I and Part II.
- The candidates are required to pay a fee of Rs. 100/- (Rupees one hundred only) [except SC/ST candidates and those specified in Note-2 of Para 4 of the Notice who are exempted from payment of fee] either by depositing the money in any branch of SBI by cash or by using net banking facility of State Bank of India/State Bank of Bikaner & Jaipur/State Bank of Hyderabad/State Bank of Mysore/State Bank of Patiala/State Bank of Travancore or by using any Visa/MasterCard/Rupay Credit/Debit Card.
- Before start filling up Online Application, a candidate must have his photograph and signature duly scanned in the .jpg format in such a manner that each file should not exceed 40 KB and must not be less than 3 KB in size for the photograph and 1 KB for the signature.
- The Online Applications (Part I and II) can be filled from 7th June, 2017 to 30th June, 2017 till 6.00 PM.
- Applicants should avoid submitting multiple applications. However, if due to any unavoidable circumstances any applicant submits multiple applications then he must ensure that the applications with higher RID is complete in all respects.
- In case of multiple applications, the applications with higher RID shall be entertained by the Commission and fee paid against one RID shall not be adjusted against any other RID.
- The applicants must ensure that while filling their Application Form, they are providing their valid and active E-mail Ids as the Commission may use electronic mode of communication while contacting them at different stages of examination process.
- The applicants are advised to check their e-mails at regular intervals and ensure that the email address ending with @nic.in are directed to their inbox folder and not to the SPAM folder or any other folder.
- Candidates are strongly advised to apply online well in time without waiting for the last date for submission of online application.
Special Instructions to Candidates for objective type tests
- Articles permitted inside Examination Hall
Clip board or hard board (on which nothing is written)a good quality
Black Ball Pen for marking responses on the Answer Sheet. Answer Sheet and sheet for rough work will be supplied by the invigilator.
- Articles not permitted inside Examination Hall
Do not bring into the Examination Hall any article other than those specified above e.g. books, notes, loose sheets, electronic or any other type of calculators, mathematical and drawing instruments, Log Tables, stencils of maps, slide rules, Test Booklets and rough sheets pertaining to earlier session(s) etc.
Mobiles, phones, Bluetooth, pagers or any other communication devices are not allowed inside the premises where the examination is being conducted. Any infringement of these instructions shall entail disciplinary action including ban from future examinations.
Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the banned items including mobile phones/Bluetooth/pagers to the venue of the examination, as arrangements for safekeeping cannot be assured. Candidates are advised not to bring any valuable/costly items to the Examination Halls, as safe keeping of the same cannot be assured. Commission will not be responsible for any loss in this regard.
- Penalty for wrong Answers
THERE WILL BE PENALTY (NEGATIVE MARKING) FOR WRONG
ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE
- There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate. One third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as
- If a candidate given more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above for that question.
- If a question is left blank i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
- Unfair means strictly prohibited
No candidate shall copy from the papers of any other candidate nor permit his papers to be copied nor give nor attempt to give nor obtain nor attempt to obtain irregular assistance of any description.
- Conduct in Examination Hall
No candidate should misbehave in any manner or create disorderly scene in the Examination Hall or harass the staff employed by the Commission for the conduct of the examination. Any such misconduct will be severely penalised.
- Answer Sheet particulars
- Write with Black ball pen your Centre and subject followed by test booklet series (in bracket), subject code and roll number at the appropriate space provided on the answer sheet at the top. Also encode your booklet series (A, B, C, or D as the case may be), subject code and roll number in the circles provided for the purpose in the answer sheet. The guidelines for writing the above particulars and for encoding the above particulars are given in Annexure. In case the booklet series is not printed on the test booklet or answer sheet is un-numbered, please report immediately to the invigilator and get the test booklet/answer sheet replaced.
- Candidates should note that any omission/mistakes/discrepancy in encoding/filling of details in the OMR answer sheet, especially with regard to Roll Number and Test Booklet Series Code, will render the answer sheet liable for rejection.
- Immediately after commencement of the examination please check that the test booklet supplied to you does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items etc., if so, get it replaced by a complete test booklet of the same series and subject.
- Do not write your name or anything other than the specific items of information asked for, on the answer sheet/test booklet/sheet for rough work.
- Do not fold or mutilate or damage or put any extraneous marking in the Answer Sheet. Do not write anything on the reverse of the answer sheet.
- Since the answer sheets will be evaluated on computerised machines, candidates should exercise due care in handling and filling up the answer sheets. They should use black ball pen only to darken the circles. For writing in boxes, they should use black ball pen. Since the entries made by the candidates by darkening the circles will be taken into account while evaluating the answer sheets on computerised machines, they should make these entries very carefully and accurately.
- Method of marking answers
In the ‘OBJECTIVE TYPE’ of examination, you do not write the answers. For each question (hereinafter referred to as “Item”) several suggested answers (hereinafter referred to as “Responses”) are given. You have to choose one response to each item. The question paper will be in the Form of TEST BOOKLET. The booklet will contain item bearing numbers 1, 2, 3…….etc. Under each item, Responses marked (a), (b), (c), (d) will be given. Your task will be to choose the correct response. If you think there is more than one correct response, then choose what you consider the best response.
In any case, for each item you are to select only one response, if you select more than one response, your response will be considered wrong.
In the Answer Sheet, Serial Nos. From 1 to 160 are printed. Against each numbers, there are circles marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). After you have read each item in the Test Booklet and decided which one of the given responses is correct or the best. You have to mark your response by completely blackening with black ball pen to indicate your response.
For example, if the correct answer to item 1 is (b), then the circle containing the letter (b) is to be completely blackened with black ball pen as shown below :- Example : (a) • (c) (d)
- Entries in Scannable Attendance List.
Candidates are required to fill in the relevant particulars with black ball pen only against their columns in the Scannable Attendance List, as given below.
- Blacken the circle (P) under the column (Present/Absent)
- Blacken the relevant circle for Test Booklet Series
- Write Test Booklet Serial No.
- Write the Answer Sheet Serial No. and also blacken the Corresponding circles below.
- Append signature in the relevant column.
- Please read and abide by the instructions on the cover of Test Booklet. If any candidate indulges in disorderly or improper conduct he will render himself liable for disciplinary action and/or imposition of a penalty as the
Commission may deem fit.
How to fill in the Answer Sheet of objective type tests in the Examination Hall
Please follow these instructions very carefully. You may note that since the answer sheets are to be evaluated on machine, any violation of these instructions may result in reduction of your score for which you would yourself be responsible. Before you mark your responses on the Answer Sheet, you will have to fill in various particulars in it.
As soon as the candidate receives the Answer Sheet, he should check that it is numbered at the bottom. If it is found un-numbered he should at once get it replaced by a numbered one.
You will see from the Answer Sheet that you will have to fill in the top line, which reads thus:
|Centre||Subject||S. Code||Roll Number|
If you are, say, appearing for the examination in Delhi Centre for the Mathematics Paper* and your Roll No. is 081276, and your test booklet series is ‘A’ you should fill in thus, using black ball pen.
|Centre Delhi||Subject Mathe-||S.Code||0||1||Roll Number|
You should write with black ball pen the name of the centre and subject in English or Hindi
The test Booklet Series is indicated by Alphabets A, B, C or D at the top right hand corner of the Booklet.
Write your Roll Numbers exactly as it is in your e-Admission Certificate with Black ball pen in the boxes provided for this purpose. Do not omit any zero(s) which may be there.
The next step is to find out the appropriate subject code from the Time Table. Now encode the Test Booklet Series, Subject Code and the Roll Number in the circles provided for this purpose. Do the encoding with Black Ball pen. The name of the Centre need not be encoded.
Writing and encoding of Test Booklet Series is to be done after receiving the Test Booklet and confirming the Booklet Series from the same. For Mathematics *subject paper of ‘A’ Test Booklet Series you have to encode the subject code, which is 01. Do it thus:
म (ए) वषय
Booklet Series (A) Subject
All that is required is to blacken completely the circle marked ‘A’ below the Booklet Series and below the subject code blacken completely the Circles for “0” (in the first vertical column) and “1” (in the second vertical column). You should then encode the Roll No.081276. Do it thus similarly:
Important : Please ensure that you have carefully encoded your subject. Test Booklet series and Roll Number:
*This is just illustrative and may not be relevant to your Examination.
GUIDELINES FOR PHYSICAL STANDARDS FOR ADMISSION TO THE
NATIONAL DEFENCE ACADEMY.
NOTE : CANDIDATES MUST BE PHYSICALLY AND MENTALLY
FIT ACCORDING TO THE PRESCRIBED PHYSICAL STANDARDS. THE
GUIDELINES FOR THE SAME ARE GIVEN BELOW.
A NUMBER OF QUALIFIED CANDIDATES ARE REJECTED
SUBSEQUENTLY ON MEDICAL GROUNDS. CANDIDATES ARE
THEREFORE ADVISED IN THEIR OWN INTEREST TO GET THEMSELVES
MEDICALLY EXAMINED BEFORE SUBMITTING THEIR APPLICATIONS
TO AVOID DISAPPOINTMENT AT THE FINAL STAGE.
Candidates are also advised to rectify minor defects/ailments in order to speed up finalisation of medical examination conducted at the Military Hospital after being recommended at the SSB.
Few of such commonly found defects/ailments are listed below :
- Wax (Ears)
- Deviated Nasal Septum
- Under Sized Chest
NOTE : Permanent body tattoos are only permitted on inner face of forearm i.e. from inside of elbow to the wrist and on the reverse side of palm/back (dorsal) side of hand/Permanent body tattoos on any other part of the body are not acceptable and candidates will be barred from further selection. Tribes with tattoo marks on the face or body as per their existing custom and traditions will be permitted on a case to case basis. Comdt Selection Centre will be competent auth for clearing such cases.
Civilian candidates appearing for all types of commission in the Armed Forces will be entitled to out-patients treatment from service sources at public expense for injuries sustained or diseases contracted during the course of their examination by the Selection Board. They will also be entitled to in-patient treatment at public expense in the Officer’s ward of a hospital provided—
- the injury is sustained during the tests or,
- the disease is contracted during the course of the examination by selection board and there is no suitable accommodation in local civil hospital or it is impracticable to remove the patient to the civil hospital; or,
- the medical board requires the candidate’s admission for observation.
NOTE : They are not entitled to special nursing.
A candidate recommended by the Services Selection Board will undergo a medical examination by a Board of Service Medical Officers. Only those candidates will be admitted to the academy who are declared fit by the Medical Board. The proceedings of the Medical Board are confidential and will not be divulged to anyone. However, the candidates declared unfit will be intimated by the President of the Medical Board and the procedure for request for an Appeal Medical Board will also be intimated to the candidate. Candidates declared unfit during Appeal Medical Board will be intimated about the provision of Review Medical Board.
- The candidate must be in good physical and mental health and free from any disease/disability which is likely to interfere with the efficient performance of Military duties.
- There should be no evidence of weak constitution, bodily defects or under weight. The Candidate should not be overweight or obese.
- The minimum acceptable height is 157 cms(162.5 cms. for Air Force). For Gorkhas and individuals belonging to hills of North-Eastern regions of India, Garhwal and Kumaon, the minimum acceptable heights will be 5 cms. less. In case of candidates from Lakshadweep the minimum acceptable height can be reduced by 2 cms. Height and weight standards are given below :
|HEIGHT/WEIGHT STANDARDS FOR|
|Height in||Weight in Kgs.|
HEIGHT/WEIGHT STANDARDS FOR NAVY
|Height in||Weight in Kgs.|
“Individual’s weight is considered normal if it is within ±10% departure from average weight given in the table I and II”. However, in individuals with heavy bones and broad build as well as individuals wiin build but otherwise healthy this may be relaxed to some extent on merit.
NOTE 1 : Height relaxable upto 2.5 cm. (5 cm. for Navy in case of candidates below 18 years of age) may be allowed where the Medical Board certifies that the candidate is likely to grow and come up to the required standard on completion of his training.
NOTE 2 : To meet special requirement as a pilot in the Air Force the acceptable measurements of leg length, thigh length and sitting height will be as under :
|Leg Length||99.00 cms.||120.00 cms.|
|Thigh Length||—||64.00 cms.|
|Sitting Height||81.50 cms.||96.00 cms.|
(d) Chest should be well developed. Fully expanded chest should not be less than 81 cms. The minimum range of expansion after full inspiration should be 5 cms. The measurement will be taken with a tape so adjusted that its lower edge should touch the nipple in front and the upper part of the tape should touch the lower angle of the shoulder blades behind. X-Ray of the chest is compulsory and will be taken to rule out any disease of the chest.
(e) There should be no maldevelopment or impairment of function of the bones or joint.
(f) Past medical history of diseases or injury of the spine or sacro iliac joints, either with or without objective signs which have prevented the candidate from successfully following a physically active life, is a cause for rejection for commissioning in IAF. History of spinal fracture/prolapsed intervertebral disc and surgical treatment for these conditions will entail rejection. The following conditions detected radiologically during medical exam will disqualify a candidate for Air Force service:
- Granulomatous disease of spine
— Rheumatoid arthritis and allied disorders
— Ankylosing spondylitis
— Osteoarthrosis, spondylosis and degenerative joint disease
— Non articular rheumatism (e.g. lesions of the rotator cuff, tennis elbow, recurrent lumbago etc.)
— Miscellaneous disorders including SLE, , polymyositis, vasculitis.
- Compression fracture of vertebrae.
- Scheuerman’s disease (Adolescent kyphosis)
- Loss of cervical lordosis when associated with clinically restricted movements of cervical spine.
- Unilateral/Bilateral cervical ribs with demonstrable neurological or circulatory deficit.
(viii) Scoliosis more than 15 degree as measured by Cobb’s method.
- Degenerative Disc. Disease.
- Presence of schmorl’s nodes at more than one level.
- Atlanto-occipital and atlantoaxial anomalies.
- Hemi vertebrae and/or incomplete block (fused) vertebrae at any level in cervical, dorsal or lumbar spine and complete block (fused) vertebrae at more than one level in cervical or dorsal spine.
- Unilateral Sacralisation or lumbarisation (Complete or incomplete) at all levels and bilateral incomplete sacralisation or lumbarisation.
- Any other abnormality if so considered by the specialist.
- Mild Kyphosis or Lordosis where deformity is barely noticeable and there is no pain or restriction of movement will not preclude acceptance.
- In case of noticeable Scoliosis or suspicion of any other abnormality or spinal deformity, more than mild, appropriate X-rays of the spine are to be taken and the Examinee referred for specialist’s advice.
- The following conditions detected on X-ray examination will be disqualifying for entry to Armed Forces :
- Granulomatius disease of spine.
- Scoliosis more than 15 degree as measured by Cobb’s Method (10 degree for Army and Navy).
- More than mild Kyphosis/Lordosis
- Herniated nucleus pulposes.
- Compression fracture of Vertebra.
- Sacaralisation Disease
- Cervical ribs with demonstrable neurological or Circulatory deficit.
- Presence of Schmorl’s node at more than one level.
- Atlanto-occipital and atlanto-axial anomalies.
- Incomplete Sacaralisation Unilateral or Bilateral
- Spina Bifida other than SV 1 and LV 5 if completely Sacralised
- Any other abnormality, if so considered by specialist.
(j) A candidate should have no past history of mental breakdown or fits.
- The hearing should be normal. A candidate should be able to hear a forced whisper with each ear at a distance of 610 cms. in a quiet room. There should be no evidence of present or past disease of the ear, nose and throat. Audiometric test will be done for AF. Audiometric hearing loss should not be greater than 20 db in frequencies between 250 and 8000 Hz. There is no impediment of speech.
- There should be no signs of functional or organic disease of the heart and blood vessels. Blood pressure should be normal.
- There should be no enlargement of liver or spleen. Any evidence
of disease of internal organs of the abdomen will be a cause for rejection.
- Un-operated hernias will make a candidate unfit. In case of Hernia which has been operated, a minimum of 6 months must have passed prior to final medical examination before commencement of the course.
- There should be no hydrocele, varicocele or piles.
- Urine examination will be done and any abnormality if detected will be a cause for rejection.
- Any disease of skin which is likely to cause disability or disfigurement will also be a cause for rejection.
- Distance Vision (Corrected): Better Eye 6/6, Worse Eye 6/9. Myopia should not be more than -2.5D and manifest hypermetropia not more than +3.5D including Astigmatism. Internal examination of the eye will be done by means of ophthalmoscope to rule out any disease of the eye. A candidate must have good binocular vision. The Colour vision standard will be CP-III (DEFECTIVE SAFE). Candidates should be able to recognize white, signal red and signal green colours correctly as shown by Martin’s Lantern at a distance of 1.5 metre or read the requisite plate of Ishihara Book / Tokyo Medical College Book. Candidates who have undergone or have evidence for having undergone Radial Keratotomy, to improve the visual acuity will be permanently rejected for all the services. Candidates who have undergone Laser Surgery for correction of refractive error are also not acceptable to defence services.
|Vision standard for Naval candidates|
|Uncorrected without glass||6/6,||6/9|
|Corrected with glass||6/6,||6/6|
|Limits of Myopia||–0.75|
|Limits of Hypermetropia||+1.5|
|Limits of colour perception||I|
Visual Standards for Air Force
Candidates who habitually wear spectacles are not eligible for Air Force, Minimum distant vision 6/6 in one eye and 6/9 in other, correctable to 6/6 only for Hypermetropia. Colour vision CP-I Hypermetropia : +2.0 D Sph Manifest Myopia : Nil Retinoscopic Myopia : 0.5 in any Meridian permitted Astigmatism : + 0.75 D Cyl (within + 2.0 D.Max) Maddox Rod Test
(i) at 6 meters Exo-6 prism D
Eso-6 prism D
Hyper-1 prism D
Hypro-1 prism D
(ii) at 33 cms Exo-16 prism D
Eso-6 prism D
Hyper-1 prism D
Hypo-1 prism D
Hand held Stereoscope–All of BSV grades Convergence–Up to 10 cm Cover test for distant and near–Latent divergence/convergence recovery rapid and complete.
- “Candidates who have undergone PRK (Photo Refractive Keratotomy / Lasik (Laser in Situ Keratomileusis) may be considered fit for commissioning in the Air Force in all branches”. Candidates having undergone cataract surgery with or without IOL implants will also be declared unfit. Binocular vision must possess good binocular vision (fusion and stereopsis with good amplitude and depth).
- “Post PRK/Lasik candidates must meet the visual requirements required for the branch”.
- The following criteria must be satisfied prior to selecting post-PRK/LASIK at the time of Air Force Medical Examination:-
- LASIK surgery should not have been carried out before the age of 20 years.
- The axial length of the eye should not be more than 25.5 mm as measured by IOL master.
(iii)At least 12 months should have elapsed post uncomplicated stable LASIK with no history or evidence of any complication.
- The post LASIK corneal thickness as measured by a corneal pachymeter should not be less than 450 microns.
- Individual with high refractive errors (> 6D) prior to LASIK are to be excluded.
- Radial Keratotomy (RK) surgery for correction of refractive errors is not permitted for any Air Force duties. Candidates having undergone cataract surgery with or without IOL implants will also be declared unfit.
- USG abdomen examination will be carried out and any congential structural anomaly or disease of the abdominal organs will be a cause for rejection in Armed Forces.
- The candidates should have sufficient number of natural and sound teeth. A minimum of 14 dental points will be acceptable. When 32 teeth are present, the total dental points are 22. A candidate should not be suffering from severe pyorrhoea.
- Routine ECG for Air Force candidates must be within normal limits.
- Physical conditioning : Prospective candidates are advised to keep themselves in good physical condition, by following the under mentioned routine :—
- Running 2.4 km in 15 minutes
- Pushups and sit ups (minimum 20 each)
- Chin ups (minimum 08)
- Rope climbing 3-4 metres.
(BRIEF PARTICULARS OF THE SERVICE ETC.)
- Before a candidate joins the Academy, the parent or guardian will be required to sign :—
(a) A certificate to the effect that he fully understands that he or his son or ward shall not be entitled to claim any compensation or other relief from the Government in respect of any injury which his son or ward may sustain in the course of or as a result of the training or where bodily infirmity or death results in the course of or as a result of a surgical operation performed upon or anesthesia administered to him for the treatment of any injury received as aforesaid or otherwise.
(b) A bond to the effect that if, on account of his dismissal or discharge or withdrawal from National Defence Academy for knowingly furnishing false particulars or suppressing material information in his application for admission to the said National Defence Academy or in the event of his being dismissed or discharged or withdrawn on disciplinary grounds from the said, National Defence Academy or for any reason not beyond the control of the cadet, he does not complete the prescribed period of training, or he, the cadet, does not accept a Commission if offered as conventated above, then the Guarantors and the cadet shall jointly and severally be liable to pay forthwith to Government in cash sums as the Government shall fix but not exceeding such expenses as shall have been incurred by the Government on account of the Cadet on his training and all the money received by the Cadets as pay and allowance from the Government together with interest on the said money calculated at the rate in force for Government loans.
- The cost of training including accommodation, books, uniforms, boarding and medical treatment will be borne by the Government. Parents or guardians of cadets, will, however, be required to meet their pocket and other private expenses. Normally these expenses are not likely to exceed Rs. 3000.00 p.m. If in any case a cadets’s parents or guardian is unable to meet wholly or partly even this expenditure financial assistance of Rs. 1000.00 p.m. for the period of training may be granted by the Government whose parents income is less than Rs. 21,000/- per month. Cadet whose parent’s or guardian’s income exceeds Rs. 21,000/- per month will not be liable for the assistance. If more than one son/ward simultaneously undergoing training at NDA, IMA, OTA and corresponding training establishment in the Navy and Air Force, then BOTH would be eligible for the financial assistance.
The parent/guardian of a candidate desirous of having financial assistance from the Government should immediately after his son/ward having been finally selected for training at the National Defence Academy submit an application through the District Magistrate of his District who will forward the application with his recommendation to the Commandant, National Defence Academy, Khadakwasla, Pune-411023.
- Candidates finally selected for training at the Academy will be required to deposit the following amount with the Commandant, National Defence Academy, on their arrival there :—
(a) Pocket allowance for five months Rs. 15000.00 @ Rs. 3000.00 per month.
|(b) For items of clothing and equipment||Rs. 17865.00|
|(c) Army Group Insurance Fund||Rs.||6400.00|
|(d) Incidental Expenditure during||Rs.||7516.00|
Out of the amount mentioned above the following amount is refundable to the candidates in the event of financial aid being sanctioned to them :—
|(a) Pocket allowance for five months||Rs. 2000.00|
|at Rs. 400.00 per month|
|(Corresponding to Govt. Financial|
|(b) For items of clothing and equip-||Rs. 13935.00|
|4.||The following Scholarships/Financial Assistance are tenable at the|
|National Defence Academy.|
(1) PARASHURAM BHAU PATWARDHAN SCHOLARSHIP—This
Scholarship is granted to cadets overall first in Academics of Passing out Course. One time scholarship amount is Rs. 5000/-.
(2) COLONEL KENDAL FRANK MEMORIAL SCHOLARSHIP—
This scholarship is of the value of Rs. 360.00 per annum and awarded to a MARATHA cadet who should be the son of an ex-serviceman. The scholarship is in addition to any financial assistance from the Government.
- KAUR SINGH MEMORIAL SCHOLARSHIP—Two scholarships are awarded to cadets who obtain the highest position amongst candidates from BIHAR. The value of each scholarship is Rs. 37.00 per mensem tenable for a maximum period of 4 years during the training at the National Defence Academy, Khadakwasla and thereafter at the Indian Military Academy, Dehra Dun and the Air Force Flying College; and Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala where the cadets may be sent for training on completion of their training at the National Defence Academy. The scholarship will, however, be continued subject to maintaining good progress at the above institution.
- ASSAM GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIP—Two scholarships will be awarded to the cadets from ASSAM. The value of each scholarship is
Rs. 30.00 per mensem and is tenable for the duration of a cadet’s stay at the National Defence Academy. The scholarships will be awarded to the two best cadets from ASSAM without any reference to the income of their parents. The cadets who are granted this scholarship will not be entitled to any other financial assistance from the Government.
- UTTAR PRADESH GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIPS—Two scholarships each of the value of Rs. 30.00 per month and an outfit stipend of Rs. 400.00 are awarded to two cadets who belong to UTTAR PRADESH on merit-cum-means basis and are tenable for a period of three years subject to satisfactory performance by the cadets at National Defence Academy. Cadets who are granted these Scholarships are not entitled to any other financial assistance from Government.
- KERALA GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIPS—One merit scholarship of the value of Rs. 480/- per annum for the entire period of training at NDA, will be awarded by the State Government of Kerala to a Cadet who is domiciled resident of the State of KERALA and who secures the first position in the All India UPSC Entrance Examination to NDA irrespective of the fact whether he has passed out from RIMC or from any of the Sainik Schools in India. The financial position of a Cadet’s father/guardian is not taken into consideration.
- BIHARI LAL MANDAKINI PRIZE—This is cash prize of Rs.
- available for the best BENGALI boy in each Course of the Academy. Application Forms are available with the Commandant, National Defence Academy.
- ORISSA GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIPS—These scholarships, one for the Army, one for the Navy and the other for the Air Force of the value of Rs. 80.00 each per month will be awarded by the Government of Orissa to the cadets who are permanent residents of the State of ORISSA. Two of these scholarships will be awarded on the basis of merit-cum-means of the cadets whose parent’s or guardian’s income does not exceed Rs. 5,000/- per annum and the other one will be given to the best cadet irrespective of his parent’s or guardian’s income.
|West Bengal||(i) The||cadet||must||be||Indian|
|Initial Lump||sum||5000/-||3750/||2500/-||the State of West Bengal.|
|grant||(ii) The Cadet is not in receipt of|
|*Table Income group||and/or the State Government or|
|Low||–||up to Rs. 9000/-pm||any||other||authority|
|Middle||– Rs. 9001/- to Rs. 18000/-pm||excepting scholarship||or stipend|
|High||–||Above 18000/-pm||received on merit.|
|(10)||Goa||Rs. 1000/- per month during the||(i) The income limit of the cadet’s|
|period of||training (subject to a maximum of||parent/guardian||shall||not|
|24||months||or||duration||of||the||guardian shall not exceed Rs.|
|course whichever is less) & one time outfit||15,000/- pm (Rs. 1,80,000/- per|
|allowance of Rs. 12,000/-||annum).|
|(ii) The||income||limit of||those|
|37,500/- per month (Rs. 4,50,000/-|
|assistance/freeship from any other|
|(11)||Nagaland||Rs. 1,00,000/- one time payment||Should be domicile of Nagaland|
|(12)||Manipur||Rs. 1,00,000/- one time payment||Should be domicile of Manipur|
|(14)||Gujarat||Scholarship||Rs. 6,000/- per||To the ward of Serving/Ex-|
|Domicile of Gujarat.|
|(a) Pocket Money Rs. 250/- pm for NDA Cadets of Uttarakhand domicile is paid to|
|father/guardian of cadets (Ex-Servicemen/Widow, through respective Zilla Sainik|
|(b) Cash Award of Rs. 50,000/- for NDA Cadets of Uttarakhand domicile is paid to|
|father/guardian of cadets through Directorate of Higher Education, Haldwani.|
|(16)||Punjab||Rs. 1,00,000/-(one time||Should be domicile of Punjab State.|
|(17)||State||Govt.||Rs.1.5||lakhs for||all||Offrs||Award for successful candidates of|
- Fg Officer Anuj Nanchal Memorial Scholarship. 1500/- (One time payment) – Second best all round Air Force cadet of VI term
- Pilot Officer Gurmeet Singh Bedi Memorial Scholarship. Pilot Officer Gurmeet Singh Bedi Memorial Scholarship. Rs. 1500/- (One time payment). Best all round Air Force cadet at the time of Passing Out of VI term.
- HIMACHAL PRADESH GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIP—
Four scholarships will be awarded to cadets from HIMACHAL PRADESH. The value of each scholarship is Rs. 30.00 per month during the first two years of training and Rs. 48.00 per month during the third year of training. These scholarships will be available to those cadets whose parent’s income is below Rs. 500.00 per month. No cadet in receipt of financial assistance from the Government will be eligible for this scholarship.
- TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIP—he Government of Tamil Nadu has instituted at NDA one scholarship per course of the value of Rs. 30/- per month plus an outfit allowance of Rs. 400/- (one only during the entire period of cadet’s training) to be awarded to a cadet belonging to the State of TAMIL NADU whose parent’s/guardian’s monthly income does not exceed Rs. 500/-. The application by an eligible cadet can be made to the Commandant, National Defence Academy on their arrival.
- KARNATAKA GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIPS—The Govt. of Karnataka has awarded scholarships to cadets from Karnataka State who join the National Defence Academy. The value of the scholarship shall be Rs. 1000/- (Rupees One thousand) per month and outfit allowance of Rs. 12000/-in first term.
- ALBERT EKKA SCHOLARSHIP—The Government of Bihar has instituted at NDA 25 Merit Scholarships at Rs. 50/- per month for entire period of six terms at the NDA and Rs. 650/- one time towards clothing and equipment. The cadet awarded the above merit scholarship would not be eligible for any other scholarship or financial assistance from the Government. The application by an eligible cadet can be made to the Commandant, National Defence Academy on their arrival.
- FG OFFICER DV PINTOO MEMORIAL SCHOLARSHIP—Gp M Vashishta has instituted 3 scholarships of Rs. 125/- each per month at NDA for one term to be awarded to the first three cadets in the order of merit on completion of their first semester till end of second term. The cadets in receipt of Govt. Financial Assistance will not be eligible for the above scholarships. The application for eligible cadets can be made to the Commandant, NDA on arrival.
- FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE TO WARDS OF EX-
The wards of Maharashtrian ex-service officers/men who are undergoing training as cadets at NDA will be given Rs. 50,000/- as one time incentive.
The parents/guardians of the wards should submit their applications to their respective Zilla Sainik Welfare Office alongwith the certificates obtained from the Academy. Terms and conditions governing these scholarships are
obtainable from the Commandant, National Defence Academy, Khadakwasla, Pune – 411 023.
(26) AWARD OF FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE TO CANDIDATES OF
HARYANA DOMICILE UNDER TRAINING AT NDA.
The Haryana State Govt. has declared a cash award of Rs. 1,00,000/- (Rupees one lakh) to every individual who successfully completes the training at NDA/IMA/OTA and other Defence Academies of National Status and domicile of State of Haryana.
(27) INCENTIVE GRANT TO CADETS DOMICILE OF UT,
CHANDIGARH UNDER TRAINING AT NDA.
Chandigarh Administration has introduced the scheme for grant of one time incentive of Rs. 1,00,000/- (Rupees one lakh) to the cadets who are resident of UT, Chandigarh and joined NDA .
- Immediately after the selected candidates join the Academy, a preliminary examination will be held in the following subjects:
The standard of the examination in the subjects at (a), (b) and (c) will not be higher than that of the Higher Secondary Examination of an Indian University or Board of Higher Secondary Education. The paper in the subject at (d) is intended to test the standard attained by the candidate in Hindi at the time of joining the Academy.
Candidates are, therefore, advised not to neglect their studies after the competitive examination.
- The selected candidates for the three services, viz., Army, Navy and Air Force are given preliminary training both academic and physical for a period of 3 years at the National Defence Academy which is an Inter-Service Institution. The training during the first two and half years is common to the cadets of three wings. All the cadets on passing out will be awarded degrees from Jawaharlal Nehru University, Delhi as under :-
|(a)||Army Cadets||–||B.Sc./B.Sc. (Computer)/BA /B.Tech degree*|
|(b)||Naval Cadets||–||B.Tech degree*|
|(c)||Air Force Cadets||–||B.Tech degree*|
*Note : All the cadets undergoing B.Sc./B.Sc (Computer)/BA Degree programme shall be awarded the degree on the successful completion of Academics, Physical and Service Training at NDA. All the cadets undergoing B. Tech programme shall be awarded the B.Tech degree on the successful completion of Academics. Physical and Service Training at NDA and the subsequent Pre Commissioning Training Academies/Institutions/Ships/Air Craft.
The selected candidates of the Naval Academy will be given preliminary training both academic and physical, for a period of 04 years at Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala. The cadets of 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme will be awarded a B. Tech Degree on successful completion of training.
- On passing out from the National Defence Academy, Army Cadets go to the Indian Military Academy, Dehra Dun, Naval Cadets to Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala and Air Force cadets to AFA, HYDERABAD.
- At the I.M.A. Army Cadets are known as Gentlemen Cadets and are given strenuous military training for a period of one year aimed at turning officer capable of leading infantry Sub-units. On successful completion of training Gentlemen Cadets are granted Permanent Commission in the rank of Lt subject to being medically fit in “SHAPE” one.
- The Naval cadets are selected for the Executive Branch of the Navy, on passing out from the National Defence Academy and are given further training at Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala for a period of one year on successful completion of which they are promoted to the rank of Sub Lieutenants.
- Air Force Cadets receive flying training for a period of 1½ years. However, at the end of 1 year of training they are given provisional Commission in the rank of Flying Officer. After successful completion of further training of six months they are absorbed as permanent commissioned officers on probation for a period of one year.
TERMS AND CONDITIONS OF SERVICES
- Army Officers and equivalent ranks in Air Force and Navy
- Fixed Stipend for Cadet Training
Gentlemen cadets during the entire duration of training in Service academies i.e. during training period at IMA and OTA shall be entitled to stipend of Rs. 21,000/- p.m. (Rs. 15,600/- as pay in Pay Band plus Grade Pay of Rs. 5,400/-).
|(a) Rank||Pay Band (Rs.)|
|Lt to Maj||15,600—39,100/- (PB-3)|
|Lt Col to Maj Gen||37,400—67,000/- (PB-4)|
|Lt Gen HAG Scale||67,000/-(annual increment @3%)–79,000/-|
|HAG+ Scale*||75,500/-(annual increment @3%) 80,000/-|
|(*Admissible to 1/3rd of total strength of Lt Gens)|
|VCOAS/Army Cdr/Lt Gen (NFSG)||80,000/- (fixed)|
(b) In addition to pay, Grade Pay will also be given as under :—
|Lt Col||Rs. 8,000/-|
|Maj Gen||Rs. 10,000/-|
(c) A Fixed sum of Rs. 6,000/- p.m. is also payable as Military Service Pay (MSP) to the officers from the rank of Lt to Brig.
(iii) QUALIFICATION PAY AND GRANT
Officers possessing certain prescribed Qualification are entitled to lumpsum Qualification Grant of Rs. 6,000/-, 9,000/-, 15,000/- or 20,000/- based on the qualification held by them.
The Army Aviators (Pilots) serving in Army Aviation Corps are entitled to the Qualification Pay, based on the Qualification held by them, as under :—
- Master Aviation Instructor—Rs. 500/- p.m.
- Senior Aviation Instructor Class I—Rs. 400/- p.m.
- Senior Aviation Instructor Class II—Rs. 280/- p.m.
- Aviators holding Master Green Card—Rs. 400/- p.m.
- Aviators holding Green Card Rs. 280/- p.m.
The Army Aviators (Pilots) serving in the Army Aviation Corps are entitled to flying allowance as under :—
|(a) Brig & above||Rs. 10,500/-|
|(b) Maj to Col||Rs. 14,000/-|
|(c) Capt||Rs. 11,000/-|
|(d) Lt||Rs. 9,000/-|
In addition to pay, an officer at present receives the following allowances :
- Dearness Allowances are admissible at the same rates and under the same conditions as are applicable to the Civilian Gazetted Officers from time to time.
- A kit maintenance allowance of Rs. 400/- p.m.
(c) Depending upon rank and area of posting, officer posted to Field Areas will be eligible for compensatory Highly Active Field Area Allowance at the rate of Rs. 6,780/- to Rs. 8,400/- p.m., Compensatory Field Area Allowance at the rate of Rs. 4,200/- to Rs. 5,200/- p.m. and Compensatory Modified Field Area Allowance at the rate of Rs. 1,600/- to Rs. 2,000/- p.m.
(d) In addition to the Compensatory Field Areas Allowance, officers posted to areas situated at a height of 9000 ft. and above are entitled for High Altitude Allowance in the range of Rs. 1,060/- p.m. to Rs. 11,200/- p.m. depending upon rank of the officer and place of posting.
- Uniform allowance : Initial allowance for one time kit @ Rs. 14,000/- and Rs. 3,000/- for every three years.
- Transport allowance : Transport @ Rs. 3,200/- + DA thereon p.m. in A-1/A class Cities and Rs. 1,600/- + DA thereon p.m. at other places shall be admissible to officers.
Note : In the case of allowances specific to Defence Forces, the rates of these allowances have been further enhanced by 50% as Dearness Allowance has gone up by 100%.
- (a) Army Group Insurance Fund is a compulsory contributory group scheme, which provides insurance cover for Rs. 15 Lac on payment of one time non refundable premium of Rs. 6400/- for 3 years paid in advance in lump sum by the cadets including Naval and Air Force Cadets of NDA from the date of joining for Pre-commission training till completion of training at NDA. In case of relegation, an additional premium of Rs. 1160/- per relegated term will be paid immediately on occurrence. For those who are medically boarded out of NDA on account of Disability, the cover provided is 50 per cent of the insured amount for 100 per cent disability i.e. Rs.7.5 lac for 100 per cent disability which is proportionately reduced to Rs.1.5 lakh for 20 per cent disability. Cadets being boarded out with less than 20 per cent disability during initial years of training will be given an ex-gratia grant of Rs. 50,000/-and Rs. 1 lac for cadet invalided out with less than 20 per cent disability during last year of training. Disability due to alcoholism, drug addiction and due to the diseases of pre-enrolment origin will not qualify for disability benefits and ex-gratia. In addition, a cadet withdrawn on disciplinary grounds or as undesirable or voluntarily leaves the Academy will also not be eligible for disability benefits and ex-gratia.
- At IMA when in receipt of stipend, the Gentlemen Cadets are provided insurance cover of Rs. 75 lac with a monthly contribution of Rs. 5,000/- w.e.f. 01 October, 2016 as per main AGI scheme as applicable to regular officers. Those who are medically boarded out of IMA on account of disability, the cover provided is Rs. 25 Lac for 100 per cent disability which is proportionately reduced to Rs. 5 lac for 20 per cent and an ex-gratia grant of Rs. 50,000/- for less than 20 per cent disability. Disability due to alcoholism,
drug addiction and due to the diseases of pre enrolment origin will not
qualify for disability benefits and ex-gratia. In addition, a cadet withdrawn on disciplinary grounds or as undesirable or voluntarily leaves the Academy will also not be eligible for disability benefits and ex-gratia.
- PROMOTIONAL AVENUES:
|(b)||Captain||Lieutenant||Flight Lieutenant||02 Years|
|(c)||Major||Lt.||Squadron Leader||06 years|
|(d)||Lieutenant Colonel||Commander||Wing||13 years|
|(e)||Colonel(Selection)||Captain||Group Captain||15 years|
|(f)||Colonel||Captain||Group Captain||26 years|
|(Time Scale)||(Time Scale)||(Time Scale)|
|(g)||Brigadier||Commodore||Air Commodore||On Selection|
|(h)||Major General||Rear Admiral||Air Vice Marshal||On Selection|
|(i)||Lieutenant General||Vice Admiral||Air Marshal||On Selection|
|(j)||General||Admiral||Air Chief||On Selection|
- RETIREMENT BENEFITS
Pension, gratuity and casualty pensionary award will be admissible in accordance with the rules in force from time to time.
Leave will be admissible in accordance with the rules in force from time to time.